MCI previous years papers

[Vandana.]

Questions sep. FMGE -2008 (Part-1,11; Set-A)


1) Trendelenberg test is positive due to…..?
2) Notochord exists as….?
3) Neuroglia….?
4) Hyaline Arteriosclerosis seen in …..?
5) Which Ig crosses through placenta …..?
6) M.C cardiac lesion seen in pregnancy ……?
7) M.C valve disease due to M.I ? (Sorry, I forgot the question. It was asked in similarly)
Herd Immunity?
9) Koplik’s spots seen in ……?
10) A ♀ patient with hypertension & suffering from Thyroiditis, DOC ……?
11) Hypocalcemia is seen with the following?
12) Most common position of Uterus?
13) Shortest ø of pelvis is……?
14) Right base of the heart is formed by …..?
15) Right side Mid calvicle the lung ends at which rib?
16) Water supply in hilly areas?
17) Prophylaxis DOC for Meningitis?
1 Anaemia is seen with all except?
19) Dose of Folic acid during pregnancy? (prophylaxis dose)
20) Vitamin “A” dosage is given in….? (№. of doses.)
21) What is Apoptosis?
22) Extrinsic factor in blood coagulation? (PT/PTT)
23) Curschmann’s spirals are due to?
24) Bell’s palsy?
25) In Dialysis which toxicity is seen commonly?
26) TOC for Gastric ulcer?
27) Squamous non-keratinizing is seen in….? a) Tongue b) Trachea c) Oesophagus d) Vagina
2 Tumour marker CA-125 is related to pancreatic Ca &…….?
29) Bilaterally kidneys are shrunken in …….?
30) Poisoning due to ______________preserved are hair, Etc..etc….?
31) The hormone helps in milk secretion?
32) Most abundant ICF is …….?
33) Features like-Hypogonadism, Loss of Hair, Pigmentation of skin Etc..etc Deficiency due to?
34) Most common features of alcohol withdrawl?
35) Negri bodies are characteristic of ?
36) M.C opportunistic Infection in immuno compromised patient?
37) Mallory-weiss syndrome? (Mallory bodies seen with….?)
3 Sickness benefit under ESI Act is given for the following illness?
39) Glucose is reabsorbed at?
40) M.C pemphigus seen in India?

41) India ia at which stage of Demographic?
42) Urinary incontinence in Older people is due to……?
43) Breast cancer is due to all, Except?
44) Black & white colour vision is due to ………?
45) Grey colour……? ( Extremely sorry I forgot what was asked ,{Ophthalmology Q} if any one can remember please ADD)
46) Kussmaul breathing is due to or seen in ………?
47) Cellulitis is caused by…….?
4 Auer rods are seen in ……?
49) Gynaecomastia is due to drugs……..?
50) In a new born Jaundice occurs on 3-5days;its not due to ……….?
51) Transmitted by faeco-orally, Except ?
52) β-Thalassemia inherited as ……..?
53) Foreign body inhaled usually lodges in which lung?
54) Change in blood viscosity causes ………?
55) * Question regarding Dentition? “Eruption”
56) Food poisoning 4-6 hrs organism responsible ……..?
57) Dreaming is common in which type of sleep?
5 Second heart sound is due to ……..?
59) “SAFE” ; ‘S’-stands for ……..?
60) Long term status of blood sugar explained by …….? (Ans: HbA1c ; The way the question was formed is different, any way the matter is most Important.)
61) Hyperglycemic drugs reduces weight ………..?
62) Surfactant is formed from which type of cells?
63) Spleenectomy is helpful in ……..?
64) Incineration done for which of the following?
65) Anti-gliadin antibodies are seen in?
The following are example of Apootosis Except-
a) Graft versus host disease
b) Menstrual cycle
c) Pathological atrophy following duct obstruction
d) Tumour necrosis

2) The normal tensile strength of tissue at the site of wound is gained after:
a) 1 week of wound healing
b) 2 weeks of wound healing
c) 2 months of wound healing
d) 2 years of wound healing
Best disease is characterized by a striking accumulation of lipofuscin-like material in the macula that often results in an "egg-yolk-like" appearance. In addition, patients affected with Best's disease display an abnormal electrophysiologic sign known as a depressed Arden ratio. The electro-oculogram (EOG) is a measurement of the electric potential that normally exists across the retinal pigment epithelium. This potential normally doubles in response to bright light. However, in Best's disease, this increase does not exist. This test can be used to diagnose patients without classic macular lesions, as well as identifying patients that are unlikely to have the disease.
qs of sept 2008 paper

21 trisomy asso. with
ALL
CLL
AML
CML

2) esophagus length
40
25
15
30

3)pre malignant cond. of esophagus
barrets

4)length of external aud. canal cartilagenous part
8
16
24
12

5)max. Na absorption at
PCT
DCT
LOH
CT

6)SUNRAY apearance on x ray
osteoclastoma
osteoblastoma
osteosarcoma
chondroblastoma

7)m\c tumor in spine
sec.
ewings sarcoma
oteosarcoma
m. myeloma

punched out lesion in skull
ewings sarcoma
m.myeloma
sec.
oteosarcoma

9)m\c reason for bradycardia in MI
septal MI
right vent. MI
left ventricular MI

10) S1 split seen in
RBBB
?
?
?

11)snow flake cat. (from prev.papers)

12)after injury to one eye other aslo worsen
glucoma
cat.
sym. opthalmia
?

13)qs from placenta abroptia ...bleeding per vagina tender and hard

very few qs from Obs

14) 60 year old man with left hydroceal + ???

ans. nephroma

15)lateral epicondyal fac.
non union
tardy ulnar nerve palsy
?
all

16)m\c parasitic infection in AIDS
strongiloids

17)toxin responsibel for TSS in femals
exo toxin

! in stap. aures food poisoning diarrhea occur due 2
endotoxin
vagus
exotoxin
?

19)pheochromocytoma diagnosis
24 hours urine metabolites VMA+ CA
MIBG
CT scan
surgery

20) what we use for thyroid scan
I 131

Q)DRUG WHICH CAUSES REVERSIBLE GYNECOMASTIA
-CIMETEDINE
-OMEPRAZOLE
Q)DOC FOR PROPHYLAXIS OF MENINGOCOCCAL MENINGITIS--RIFAMPIN
Q)A PT WITH THROMBOCYTOPENIA.1ST IOC
*-BLEEDING TIME
-PLATELET COUNT
-PROTHROMBIN TIME
Q)MC CAUSE OF SOLITARY THYROID NODULE
-FOLLICULAR ADENOMA
Q)TUMOR MARKER4BOTH PANCREATIC &COLON CA
-CA125
-CA19
Q)A PT VID AN INFERIOR WALL MI IN SHOCK.REASON?
ANS-RIGHT VENTRICULAR INFARCTION
Q)ALL R FEATURES OF ATRIAL MYXOMA EXCEPT
-FEVER
-CLUBBING
-EMBOLI
*HYPERTENSION
Q)DOC IN SVT--ADENOSINE
Q)A FEMALE PT HAS CHEST PAIN (NON EXERTIONAL)
AUSCULTATION--MULTIPLE NON EJECTION ? ..IOC?
*ECHO
Q)A PT PESENTS WITH MI.EARLEST MARKER?
CK-MB
TROP-T
MYOGLOBIN
Q)STAPH AUREUS FOOD POISONING-CAUSE OF NAUSEA?
ANS--DIRECT VAGAL STIMULATION
Q)A Q ON WEGENERS GRANULOMATOSIS
Q)A PT ON TPN.WHAT COULD BE THE CAUSE OF MORTALITY IN THAT PT?
OPTIONS CANT RECALL,BUT I MARKED INFECTIONS DUE2CENTRAL LINE
Q)A Q ON APGAR SCORE
Q)A Q ON ARDS--DIAGNOSTIC CRITERIA
some more recalls!

Q)A PT WITH BULBAR URETRAL RUPTURE.UR 1ST MN: WUD BE
--SUPRAPUBIC CYSTOSTOMY
--FOLEY'S
--CONSERVATIVE MN
--REFER2UROLOGIST

Q)MJ MUSCLE FOR EYE INTORSION?

Q)ERYTHRODERMA IS ASSOCIATED WID A/E
--LEPROMATOUS LEPROSY
--AIR BORNE DERMATITIS

Q)DERMATITIS HERPETIFORMIS IS A/W
*ULCERATIVE COLITIS

Q)MC TYPE OF PEMPHIGUS IN INDIA?
*P.VULGARIS

Q)LA SAFE IN RF?
GALLAMINE

Q)A PT WID MYASTHENIA GRAVIS IS RESISTANT2
--*DEPOLARISING MR
--NON DEPOLARISING MR
--BOTH
--NONE

Q)A PSM Q 2FIND OUT RELATIVE RISK

Q)ANOTHER PSM Q ON PANEL DISCUSSION..Q WAS AS2VAT WAS IT ABOUT

Q)A Q ON SARCOIDOSIS(PATHO)

Q)WHICH ANTIBODY HAS BEST4 CELIAC DISEASE(SENSITIVE &SPECIFIC)?
*ANTI ENDOMYSIAL AB


Q)BEST PROGNOSTIC FACTOR 4 A/C PANCREATITIS
-*S.LIPASE

Q)A Q ON ZES--WHICH IS NOT TRUE
ONE OF THE OPTION READ--REDUCED BAO:MAO WHICH S D ANS


Q)AN OHA WHICH IS USED 2TREAT OBESITY
ANS WAS SUM BIGUANIDE GIVEN IN THE OPTIONS

Q)ANOTHER Q ON DIAB DRUG
WHICH ONE DOES'NT CAUSE HYPOGLYCEMIA

[Vandana.]

some more questions frm FMGE sept 2008

1-ring shaped ulcers seen in?
2-neurotrophic keratitis-nerve involved
3-question on sympathetic ophthalmia
4-extra capsular cataract surgery-parts of lens which are excised?
5- SAFE strategy for trachoma-S stands for?
6-rubro iridis is not seen in?
7-questions on cost benefit and cost accounting in PSM
8-central tendancy seen in-(refer biostats PSM )
9-question on odds ratio
10-complication of measles virus –encephalomelyitis
some more-
NNN Media used for- Ans-leshmania donavani
Treatment of first degree testicular cancer
Fourniers (sorry for d spelling,I don remember exactly!) gangrene seen in- Ans scrotum
Treatment Regimen for hodkgins lymphoma
Shape of tracheal cartilage-ans-horse shoe shape
Comonest congenital anomaly of trachea
Erythoderma is not seen in-?
Commonest lupus in india-
Fate of notochord-?
Mysanthia gravis is not inhibited by-depolarizing agents,non depolarizing agents,both,?
Rarest form of opportunistic fungal infection seen in AIDS-
White line of frenkel seen in-ans Scurvy
Xray sign of rickets
Splenomegaly not seen in-?
The first clinical presentation of acoustic neuroma-ans-facial nerve involvement
Stones r seen most commonly in submandibular salivary gland
The calories required by one year old child
4-5 questions on Tracheostomy
Sunray sign on xray seen in-?osteosarcoma
Tardy ulnar palsy seen in-?
Rigor mortis is due to-?
Vitreous hemorrhage on autopsy seen in poisoning of-?
One question on [bleep]-Refer Forensic Medicin
Most specific method of diagnosis of kalazar
questions

Q.a patient with tb had decrease SERUM level of Na and k....... and has hyperpigmentation of crease of hand??...
ans.. secondary hyperaldeosteroism.
Q.MC. CAUSE OF DEATH IN INDIA?
ANS. CORONAY HEART DISEASE.
Q.CXR AP VIEWON RIGHT SIDE OF CARDIAC SILHOUTE U CAN SEE ALL EXCEPT?
ANS. SUPERIOR VENA CAVA
Q.NORMAL TO INCREASE SIZE OF KIDNEY IS SEEN ALL EXCEPT?
ANS. *CHRONOC GN
DIABETIC NEPHROPATHY
AIDS REALTED NEPHROPATHY
PKD
Q.SPLEEN IS SUPPORT BY WHICH LIGAMNET FROM UPPER SIDE?
ANS. GASTROSPLENIC LIGAMENT.
Q.STAIN FOR AMLYDOSIS
ANS. CONGO RED
Q.AUER RODS ARE SEEN IN?
AN. AML
Q.WHICH TUMOR IS MC IN DOWN SYNDROME?\
ANS MAY BE RETINOBLASTOMA (PLZ MAKE SURE FROM BOOK)

[Vandana.]

FMGE March 2005 Question Paper



Anatomy

1.Muscle which helps to open E.tube while opening mouth(Tensor tympani, Tensor palate, _, All)

2. The order of vessels in the Intercostal space from above to below(VAN, AVN, ANV)

3. Branches of Int iliac artery except (Ovarian a., sup vesical, med rectal, inf rectal)

4. Bipolar neuron is seen in ( parasympathetic ganglion, sympa ganglion, cochlear ganglion)

5. Inversion & eversion of foot joints at- Subtalor joints

6. No of lobes in liver as per COUINAUD’s classification- (3,4,6,

7. Umbilical cord contains – 2 arteries & 1 vein

8. Lig Arteriosum is derived from- Ductus arteriosus

9. MI ligament preventing uterine prolapse-(cardinal, teres uteri, broad lig)

Biochemistry

10. Water soluble form of vit K(phyllaquinone, menaquinione, menadione, )

11. Single oral dose for vit D prophylaxis(50000,100000,200000 U)

12. Test for RNA detection-Northern blotting

13 .SSA-Glutamate in 6th posn in B chain by valine

14. Chitin is a polymer of-N acetyl glucosamine

15. Watson’s DNA model is –Right handed anti parallel

16. Wheat lacking in(lysine, leucine, threonine)

17. No of ATP produced by complete metabolism of pyruvate(12,15,18,30)

18. Final product of purine metabolism(uric acid, NH3+CO2)

19. T4 is formed from- Tyrosine

20. Daily required dose of Fe in an adult man(5,10,20,30)

21. Nieman pick dise due to def of-Sphingomyelinase

22. Saturated fatty acids max in(coconut oil, ground nut oil, palm oil)

23. MI indicator of protein efficacy(biol value, net protein utln, chemical score, protein efficacy ratio)

24. Dietary fibres rich in(polysaccharides, monosaccharides, non starch polysaccharides)

25. Dietary % of energy from fat should be less than(10,20,30,40)

26. Unconj bilirubinemia seen in all except(Dubin Johnson, Criggler najjar, Gilbert’s, Hemolytic anemia)

27. Source of NH3 in brain - Glutamine

28. BMR depends mainly on- body surface area

Physiology



29. Normal PH of blood- 7.36-7.44

30. Longest life span for(lymphocytes, neutrophils, monocytes)

31. Normal glomerular capillary pressure(15,25,35,45 mm Hg)

32. Ion which is not interfered at loop of Henle(Na, K, Cl, urea)

33. MC Hb in adult(Hb A1, HbA2, Hb F)

34. Feacal mass mainly derived from(indigested food, undigested food, intestinal flora, intestinal secretions)

35. Nicotinic receptors are seen in all except(adrenal medulla, NMJ, bronchial smooth muscle)

36. Anterior Pituitary secretes (ADH, oxytocin, FSH, GnRH)

37. Mucin acini cells characteristic all except(peripherally placed nucleus,distinct lumen,zymogen granules,transparent)

38. In synaptic cleft max concn of( Na, K, Ca, protein anions)

39. Charecteristic for smooth muscle cells(don’t require Ca, cant do recurrent contraction, cant do sustained contraction)

40. All or none law is obeyed by (spike potential, post synaptic potential, )

41. All carried through lat spino thalamic tract except(crude touch, pressure, pain, Temperature)


Pathology


42. Longitudinal ulcers seen in – Typhoid fever

43. Amoebic ulcer is – flask shaped

44. TB ulcer edges are- undermined

45. Crescent shaped gametocytes seen in- Falciparum malaria

46. HIV affects (CD4, CD8, CD4+double +ve, CD8+)

47. Few RBCs,few neutrophils with some degraded fibrin in lungs seen in(grey hepatisation, red hepatisation, viral pneumonia)

48. Brunner’s glands in –Deodenum

49. Organ which undergoes involution- Thymus

50. Minimal change GN, all are true except(absence of podocytes, normal glomerulus, poor response to steroids)

51. Bence Johns Protein is – light chain monoclonal

52. True about NK cells except(mediates type IV hypersensitivity, kill viruses, are large granular lymphocytes)

53. MHC is important in pathogenesis of- ? auto immune diseases

54. SLE is- Type III hypersensitivity

55. Adult polycystic kidney disease is inherited – AD

56. Which is not inherited XR(G6PD def, Duschene’s MD, Cystic fibrosis)

57. Lung Ca with worst prognosis( small cell, adeno. Squamous cell)

58. Ovarian tumours MC arises from (epithelium, germ cell, stroma)

59. Cholera toxin acts on (ADP G1, ADP Gs, _,_,)

60. FAMILIAL hypercholesterolemia due to- LDL receptor deficiency

61. Exudative pleural effusion seen in all except(CCF, Ca, Pneumonia, Nephrotic syndrome)

62. Most active form at tissue level(T3, T4, mono iod thyronin)

63. Immediate response in acute inflammation except(granuloma formation, vasodilatation, neutrophil migration)

64. Epitheloid granuloma consists mainly of(monocytes ¯ophages, T cells, B cells)

65. Invasive Ca differs from Ca in situ by (basement membrane involvement, pleomorphism, _)

66. Pleural effusion in vertical positon MC accumulates in (costo phrenic recess, oblique fissure, horizontal fissure)



Microbiology

67. Babesiosis in India MC transmitted by – Ticks

68. Q-fever is caused by- Coxiella burnetti

69. Lymes disease is caused by- Borrellia burdgofferi

70. Megaloblastic anemia caused by – Diphyllobotrum latum

71. Paragonismus westermani is commonly called – Lung fluke

72. Toxic Shock Syndrome MC caused by- Staphylococci

73. Sabin Feldman test used to Dx- TOXOPLASMOSIS

74. Bedside rapid urease test is Dx of(Proteus, H.pylori)

75. Staph.aureus is a normal inhabitant of(nose , SKIN ,throat)

76. LRTI is MC caused by (streptococci,viruses,H.influenza, mycoplasma)

77. VR media used for –V.cholera

78. Which vaccine should not be kept in freezer- DPT

79. Promastigote form of Leishmania seen in (NNN medium, spleen , Bone marrow, lymph node)

80. All are dimorphic fungi except(Cryptococcus, histoplasma, paracoccidia, blastomycoses)

81. Which is Gram +ve(fusobacterium, bacteroids, artonella, ar----lla)



Pharmacology

82. Anti TB drug causing gout- Pyrazinamide

83. Prolactine is stimulated by(TRH, ACTH, GnRH, Dopamine)

84. GH is inhibited by (Bromocriptine, glucose, exercise, sleep)

85. In a patient with hepatitis which ATT is most safe( S+E, H+E, R+E, S+H)

86. Prokinetic drug with no dopamine antagonism(metachlopramide, domperidone, mosapride, chlorpromazine)

87. Warfarin acts by inhibiting – factors II, VII, IX, X

88. Heparin induced thrombocytopenia.Tactics include all except( switch on to warfarin, cannot be substituted with LMWH, stop Heparin,_)

89. Warfarin metabolism is inhibited by( Ketoconazole, Pheno, Rifampicin, chronic alchoholism)

90. Disulfiram like rn is caused by all except(Griseofulvin, metronidazole, ciprofloxacin, erythromycin)

91. Drug not interferes with antacid( Azithromycin, Tetracyclin, Norfloxacin,Ranitidine)

92. All are B-lactam inhibitors except(Astreonam, Sulbactam, Tazactam, Clavulenic acid)

93. Penicillin is(safe in pregnancy, is 6 amino penicill acid, all are not antipseudomonal)

94. Not used as an antacid(NaHCO3, AlOH3, SiO2, MgSO4)

95. DOC in LGV- Tetracycline

96. Lactic acidosis in DM therapy caused by – Phenformin

97. Pancreatitis is a S/E of( Didanosine, Zidovudine,Zalcitabine)

98. B-blockers are used in all except( A-V block, angina, FAMILIAL TREMOR )


Forensic Medicine

99. Female can give consent for SEX if above (16, 12, 19, 21)

100. Post marteum stiffening is called –Rigor mortis

101. Most informative test in parental identification-( DNA finger print, HLA)

102. Lesion with intact SKIN but internal Pathology - Contusion


PSM

103. Rural community health centre for(30000,60000,100000,200000) population

104. Exclusive breast feeding is recommended by WHO upto( 6, 4, 3, 9 months)

105. Patient made to walk early after Surgery , this is to- reduce disability

106. Which is secondary prevention(Cx pap smear checking, vaccination , admitting disabled child in special schools)

107. Temporary contraceptive method of choice in a 37 yr well educated woman- (Diaphragm, IUCD, mala N, mala D)

108. Best protection from STD & Syphilis by – condom

109. Method used to compare cost of 2 studies- cost accounting

110. Survillance is_

111. PQLI includes- IMR, Life expectancy at 1 year, literacy

112. Test which detects TRUE NEGATIVE- Specificity

113. Disease usually not seen in a country but brought from abroad is – EXOTIC

114. Couple protection rate should be – 60%

115. Ideal couples are( just married, men 20-40 women 16-45,)

116. Fastest population growth in ( India, Kuwait, Pakistan, Srilanka)

117. A new drug not prevents a disease but reduce death due to that disease then- PREVALENCE increases

118. Socially attained behavior is( culture, custom, socialization_)

119. The upper line in growth chart is( 50 , 60, 70, 80 th percentile)

120. Who should be trained in a community for house to house surveys

121. MI factor deciding results of a clinical trial( Effective randomization, 50% Rx with placebo & 50% with drugs, Inclusion of all age groups, 100% follow up)


Ophthalmology

122. Trachoma in ( 1, 2, 3, 5 million people all over world)

123. MCC of vision loss in HIV( CMV retinitis, Toxoplasma, HIV retinitis)

124. Dendritic ulcer seen in – HERPEZ

125. Most serious complication after traumatic injury to one eye – SYMPATHETIC OPHTHALMIA

126. ROSETTE shaped cataract in – TRAUMA

127. Rx of choice in CAG ( surgical iridectomy, laser iridectomy, pilocarpine, trabeculectomy)

128. Ideal site for IOL- Posterior capsule

129. Laser used for IOL inpln- NdYAG

130. Muscle 1st to be affected in Thyroid ophthalmopathy.- INF RECTUS

131. Axial length of eye ball- 24 mm

132. 1mm increase in axial length leads to increase the power by ( 1,2,3,4 D)

133. Argyll Robertson pupil seen in – Neuro syphilis

134. Light reflex is carried through( Ciliary nerve, V, VII, )

135. Anterior Uveitis is MC assd with - HLA B 27

136. Scleritis MC assd with – RA

137. Interstitial keratitis MC seen in – Syphilis

138. MCC of Vitreous H-gge (Eale’s dse, DM , HTN)

139. Tractional RD is seen in (Vitreous loss after Surgery , DM retinopathy,_)

140. White pupillary reflex is called – Leucocoria

141. Dx test for corneal ulcer ( Flur.angiography, Alcian blue, Rose Bengal, methylene blue)

142. In DIRECT ophthalmoscopy image is magnified by ( 15, 5,10, 20 times)

143. Sup oblique muscle is supplied by - IV nerve

144. MCC of cataract blindness- (Senile, congenital, traumatic)

145. Max cones are seen in ( fovea centralis, macula lutea, blind spot)


ENT

146. Ext ear is not supplied by( GP nerve, Vagus, Great auricular nerve, Lesser occipital nerve)

147. Tonsills innervated by ( GP, Vagus, Abduscens)

148. Schwart’s sign is seen in – OTOSCLEROSIS

149. Pure tone is ( single frequency, multiple F, mixed F, F above 4000 Hz)

150. In BERA the IVth potential is from ( Cochlear ganglion, inf colliculus, MGB)

151. [bleep] myringitis is seen in ( Measles, mumps,Herpez,Mycoplasma)

152. About Rhinoscleroma false is ( Cause subglottic stenosis, caused by Gm+, streptomycin useful in Rx, Mikkuliz cells & Russel bodies seen)

153. Le-Forte’s # is the # of - MAXILLA


ANAESTHESIOLOGY

154. Pin index of oxygen(5,15,25,35)

155. Laughing gas is – Nitrous oxide

156. Used for iv induction except (Bupivacaine, Thiopental Na, Ketamine, Etomidate)


Dermatology

157. Latest retinoid drug used in PSORIASIS - Adapalane

158. Isomorphism not seen in (Lichen sclerosis, Lichen planus, Vitiligo, PSORIASIS )

159. Alopecia,hyperpigmentation ,hypogonadism charecteristc for deficiency of --Zn

160. Decreased no of melanocytes seen in(Pebaldism, albinism, )


Radiology

161. Element MC used in brachytherapy of Ca Cervix- CESIUM

162. Filament in X-Ray made of- Strontium

163. Most radiosensitive organ- Bone marrow

164. Double Bubble sign in Barium meal seen in – Deodenal Atresia

165. Best method to Dx Pathology in terminal part of CBD. (USG, ERCP, PTC, CEST)

166. Investigation of choice in a person brought with traumatic paraplegia( MRI, CT, Myelography)

Psychiatry

167. DOC in OCD( Sertraline, alprazolam, chlorpromazine)


orthopaedics

168. Hill-Sachs lesion seen in – Reccurent dislocation of shoulder

169. Nerve damaged in # of shaft of humerous- Radial nerve

170. Bony ankylosis is caused by ( Septic arthritis, TB arthritis, Bechet’s dse, Psoriatic arthritis)

171. MCP joints are MC affected in – RA

172. 1st epiphysis to be ossified in elbow( Head of radius, Capitulum, Trochlea, Med condyle)


Paediatrics

173. MCC of death in TOF (bronchopneumonia, starvation, malabsorption)

174. Boy c/o haemetemesis, mild splenomegaly,no hepatomegaly.Dx ( Non cirrhotic fibrosis, chirrosis, Budd-Chiari sy)

175. Minimal fluid intake in an 8 kg boy should be ( 800, 700 ml, 1L)

176. Enuresis is normal until(5, 4, 3 1/2, 2 1/2 years)

177. Normal duration of physiologicl jaundice in a trm baby- 1 week

178. Charecteristic for achild with acute post strepto coccal GN- raised ASO& fever& Leucocytosis

Medicine

179. Nephrocalcinosis seen in –Hyper PTH

180. 45 year man co vomiting with food mass taken days before,foul smelling breath, occasional dysphagia to solid food. Dx(Zenkers diverticulum, Achalasia, diabetic gastroparesis, scleroderma)

181. Severity of mitral stenosis is determined by (diastolic murmur duration, mid DMD, opening snap, intensity of S1)

182. Severity of DM assessed by (HbA1C, KB level, RBS)

183. Typhoid ulcer perforation in – 3rd week

184. Normal anion gap acidosis seen in (cholera, DKA, Lactic acidosis)

185. pH=7.28,PCO2=70,HCO3=36 Dx (resp acidosis with metabolic alkalosis, resp acidosis with metb acidosis)

186. In thalassemia trait(increased HbF & HbA2, increased HbF & decreased HbA2)

187. Tetany is not seen in (Verapamil, thyroid Surgery , hyperventilation, malabsorption)

188. Down’s Sy is Dx by all except(decreased hcg, increased hcg, decreased AFP)

189. 100% O2 not effective in (TOF, DILD, Eosinophilic pneumonia)

190. Prophylaxis to a child with RHD should be given minimum till(at least 5 years after onset, life long, till 17 years)

191. Carotid massage is effective in- PSVT

192. Lung Ca MC assd with(Asbestosis, Silicosis)

193. Not premalignant(Crohn’s dse, UC, Leukoplakia, Retinitis pigmentosa)

194. Complications of DU except(Malignancy, perforation, bleed, obstruction)

195. Not a cutaneous manifestation of TB( LUPUS pernio, LUPUS vulgaris, Erythema nodosum)

196. MI in aetiology of CAD- LDL

197. MCC of ICH- (HTN, Berry aneurysm)

198. Hemodialysis is not effective in( Digoxin , salicylate, methanol, barbiturate poisoning)

199. Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia seen in – (HUS, HTN, DM , All)

200. Post exposure prophylaxis for HIV min for( 6 weeks, 4 weeks, 12 weeks, 8 weeks)

201. Vomiting,diarrhea 6 hours after food intake- Staphylococci

202. Patient c/o finger stiffness, dysphagia.Dx- Scleroderma

203. Hepatorenal syndrome charc by all except( normal intrinsic kidney , low or no proteinuria;_)

204. Best marker to assess prognosis after colon Surgery for Ca( CEA, Ca199, Ca125)

205. Rx of steroid dependant asthma(long acting B2 agonist, leucotrine antagonist, theophylline, systemic steroid)

206. Pretibial myxedema is seen in ( Thyrotoxicosis, myxedema, follicular Ca , Pappilary Ca thyroid)

207. Zn def not see n in ( Burns, TB, Renal tubular dse, malabsorption)

208. True about Pan coast Tr except(lower lobe Ca, MC adeno Ca)

209. Charecteristic of MCTD are all of the following (?except) (CNS involvement, GN, Polyarthritis, Hypocomplimentemia )

210. MC CNS involvement in HIV- Dementia

211. a –wave in JVP indicates – Atrial systole

212. Wide split fixed 2nd sound seen in – ASD

213. Anti mitochondrial Ab seen typically in – PBC

214. brain death is loss of(brain stem Fx, cortical Fx, spinal refex, corneal reflex)

215. H-gge into R internal capsule of aR handed person causes(Aphasia, R hom hemianopia, hemianopsia)

216. Spirochets can be identified by all of the follwg(?except) ( Dark field microscopy, Levaditi stain, Fontana stain, Gram stain)

217. Dressler’s syn due to- auto immune

218. Pinpoint pupil seen in all except(Imipramine, Chlorpromazine, _, None)

219. Pt with jaundice and ARF. MI in history except( TCA Rx,

sewage worker, Paracetamol poisoning, Drug abuse)

220. 45 year man c/o back pain & joint pain. In X-Ray B/L Sacroileitis. Dx. (Ankyl spondylosis, Psoriatic arthritis, RA)

221. Not a cause of Cor pulmonale( Mitral stenosis, intermittent PE, COPD, Kyphoscoliosis)

222. FAMILIAL [bleep] dse is equivalent to(Halvey halvey syn, Darrier’s dse, [bleep] pemphigus)

223. MCC of hypovolemic shock- (H-gge, Gm-ve shock)

224. Flapping TREMOR is seen in all except( Thyrotoxicosis, Uraemia, CO2 narkosis, Hepatic failure)

225. In hemolytic anemia true except( increased haptoglobulin, BM hyperplasia, Reticulocytosis, increased unconj bilirubin)

226. Morphine is given in – LVF

227. MCA territory H-gge, not seen is( Aphasia, dysarthria, hemiparesis)

228. MI factor determining myocardial O2 consumption ( heart rate, blood volume, cardiac output, myocardial fibre tension)

229. Hypotonia seen in all except( anxiety, sleep, shock)


Surgery

230. Tinel’s sign is seen in (nerve regeneration, degeneration, both, none)

231. Thrombophlebitis seen in ( Buerger’s dse, Reynauld’s dse, AV fistula)

232. GERD is predisposed by( Smoking, Achalasia, Trunkal vagectomy, All)

233. Not premalignant( Condyloma lata, Bowen’s dse, Balanopostitis)

234. Uvula vesicae is caused by(ant lobe, post lobe, medial lobe of Prostate)

235. In Carpel tunnel syndrome,the nerve involved is – Median Nerve

236. MCC of hepatic abscess in India( amoebic absess, infected haematoma, ascending infection, secondary to cholelithiasis)

237. Multiple lytic lesions in all bones of a child of 14 years. Dx( Histiocytosis X, Neuroblastoma, Osteosarcoma, 2ory from Wilm’s Tr)

238. Dumbing syn is charec by all except(Hyperglycemia, numbness & giddiness)

239. Not a complication of Crohn”s dse( Sclerosing cholangitis, granuloma, fistula, stricture)

240. Hirshprung’s Dse MC involves (recto sigmoidal jn, Rectum, colon )

241. Hirshprung’s Dse Dx by – Rectal Biopsy

242. Thimble bladder is seen in - TB

243. Mass 15 cm away from anal orifice .Rx( Colonoscopic removal, hartman’s operation, ant resection, abd-peroneal resection)

244. Sister Joseph Nodules are seen at – Umbilicus

245. Spigelian hernia is- hernia of arcuate line

246. Pott’s puffy Tr is - OSTEOMYELITIS of skull bone

247. Grey Turner sign in – Acute pancreatitis

248. Acute pancreatitis cause all except(induce fat necrosis, hypercalcemia, increased amylase)

249. Amylase is increased in all except( A/c appendicitis, A/c pancreatitis, duodenal perforation, intestinal obstrn)

250. Rx of paralytic ileus include all except(Parasympathomimetics, NG aspiration, IVF, Electrolyte correction)

251. Painful tender & non reducable sac through inguinal canal with absent cough reflex.Dx- Strangulation

252. MC organ ruptured in blunt trauma of abdomen- spleen

253. Bornhalm’s sign seen in – AV fistula

254. Dse with least flow(Intravisceral fistula, visceral hemangioma, portal vein shunt)

255. Stones are MC seen in which salivary gland- sub mandibular

256. Major amount of unstimulated salivary secretion by(Parotids,submandibular, sublingual, small lingual glands)

257. MC mode of spread to cervical LN in TB( Haematogenous, lymphogenic, contact)

258. MC mode of spread of Gall Bladder Ca- (Transcoelomic, lymphogenic, hematogenic, Direct extension)

259. Chronic cholecystitis is assd with all except( usually palpable, MC in women, Assd wiyh GB stones, Rokitansky cells)

260. MC type of Basal cell Ca- Nodular

261. LN involved in Breast Ca except( Pre tracheal, ant axillary, parasternal, supraclavicular)

262. Sted collar abscess seen in (TB, Syphilis, Actinomycoses)

263. Which cannot be considered as a solitary noduleof thyroid(adenoma, carcinoma, physiological goiter, cyst)

264. In neck dissection above omohyoid we are removing(I,II,III level LN)


Gynaecology

265. Scaly lesions with frequent bleed around areola. Dx ( Paget’s dse, Ezcema, TB)

266. Epithelium in vagina is – squamous

267. Colposcopy used to visualize- Cervix

268. MC site of ectopic pregnancy,-(ampulla, isthmus, interstitium)

269. 43 year lady c/o prolonged and heavy bleed.O/E hyperplasia with no atypia. Rx(Estrogen, Estrogen+ progestogen, Progestron, Hysterectomy)

270. In a patient soon after 3rd stage of labour placenta fully came out, but heavy bleed. Tactics; (Massage & oxytocin, IVF, Check for placenta in uterus, check for laceration of labia)

271. Painless heavy bleed seen in ( Placenta previa, )

272. Hydramnios is complicated by all except( Atonic H-ge, obstructed labour, uterine dysfunction, Placenta abruptio)

273. Bacterial vaginosis causes(Pre term labour, abruption placenta, endometritis, Chorioamnionitis)

274. Gold standard in Dx of PID( USG, Laparoscopy, Blood leucocyte count, Anti chlamydial Ab)

275. LH:FSH ratio increased in – PCOD

276. Ovulation coincides with – LH surge

277. Exact no of weeks between LMP & EDD- (38, 39, 40 weeks)

278. Bishop’s classification is used for-_

279. Pregnant lady presnts with fulminant hepatitis. MCC( Hep A, B,C, D)

280. Advantages of median episiotomy over mediolateral are all except(H-ge, Healing, pain, extension)

281. Active tactics in labour according to –PARTOGRAM

282. Investigations to be done in a girl presented with delayed puberty( USG pelvis, FSH, Karyotyping, All)

283. Best prognostic factor in breast Ca( LN involvement, age, FAMILIAL history)

284. MC presentation( LOA, ROA, LOP, ROP)

285. Appropriate investigation of choice in Vesico-ureteric Reflux- MCU

286. Not a complication of Pseudo pancreatic cyst(H-ge into cyst, Rupture, Malignancy)

287. Pheno cause HEMOLYSIS in all of the follwg except (G6PD def, TB, Alcoholism)

288. External ear infections are MC caused by (Pseudomonas, fungi, virus, actinomyces)

289. Major site of storage of labile proteins ( liver , skel muscle, endocrine glands, exocrine glands)

290. Virus causing Rabies in man is( Street virus, wild virus,--)

[Vandana.]

FMGE QUESTIONS SEPTEMBER 2005(part 1&2)
(the answers marked with question mark are not appropriate. if anyone gets the correct answer, please do the proper corrections)
1,Hydatid cyst is commonly found in
1, liver
2, lungs
3, kidney
(ans:Liver)
2, Most common site of abscess formation due to Amoeba
1, Liver
2, Lungs
3, Kidney
(ans:Liver)
3, Umblical cord has (repeated question in all previous papers)
1,2artery n 1 vein
2,2 vein n 1 art.
(Ans:2 artery n 1 vein)
4, Apoptosis
Programmed internal suicidal cell death
5, wheal and flare reaction is
1, Type 1 hyper sensitivity
2, Type 2 hyper sensitivity
3, Type 3 hyper sensitivity
4, Type 4 hyper sensitivity
(ans:Type 1 hyper sensitivity. All the anaphylactic reactions comes under type 1 hyper sensitivity)
6, Hypoglossal nerve is
1,6th nerve
2,7th nerve
3,12th nerve
4,9th nerve
(Ans:12th nerve)
7, Muscle in the inguinal canal is
1, Internal oblique
2, External oblique
3, Transverse
(ans:???transverse)
8, Total claw hand
1, ulnar and median nerve
2, ulnar nerve
3, median nerve
(ans:?ulnar and median nerve)
9,In Hansen’s disease the nerve affected is:
1, ulnar nerve
2, median nerve
3, radial nerve
(ans:ulnar nerve.Hansans disease is the other name for leprosy. the most common nerve affected in leprosy is ulna nerve.
Ref.Bailey and love. Pg37-41)
10, Complication of extra capsular fracture of femur:
1, Non union
2, mal union
(ans:Non union Ref.SARP surgery and orthopaedics pg.89)
11,Eye ball moments controlled by all, EXCEPT:
1, optic nerve
2, abducens nerve
3, Trochlear nerve
4, oculomotor nerve
(ansptic nerve.( Abducens 6th nerve moves the eye laterally,Trochlear nerve helps in moving the eye down and in,Oculomotor 3rd nerve helps for outward lateral gaze)
12, Lacrimal duct passes through, except:
1, Frontal
2, maxillary
3, zygomaticus
4, lacrimal
13, Right common carotid artery arises from:
1,Right axillary
2, Arcus aorta
3, Brachiocephalicus
(ans:Brachiocephalicus)
14, The first heart sound S1 is due to the:
1, AV closure
2, opening of aortic valve
3, closing of aortic valve
(ans:AV closure)
15, Rheumatic fever is associated with:
1, Mitral valve
2,Pulmonary valve
3,Tricuspid valve
4, Aortic valve
(ans:Mitral valve)
?15, Hernia Morgani passes through:
1,pleuro peritoneum
2,diaphragm
16, Gland of Burner is found in (Rpt in march 2005)
()ANSeudenum)
17, Length of Duodenum:
1,15
2,20
3,25
(ans:20-25cm, Ref. SARP BAP(biochem,Anatomy ,Physiology ) pg 77)
18, Tuberculosis commonly affects which part of the colon:
1, Transverse colon
2, Terminal colon
3, Jejunal colon
19, Unilateral breast findings with scaly skin around the nipple with intermittent bleeding (Rpt. In march 2005)
1, Pagets disease
2, Eczema
3,CA breast
(ans:Pagets disease)
20Simple Mastectomy includes:
1,Breast and axillary nodes
2,only breast
3, Breast +axillaries nodes+pectoralis major muscle
(ans:Only Breast, Simple Mastectomy- this means complete removal of the breast but the axilla is left undisturbed except for the region of the axillary tail which usually has attached to it a few nodes low in the anterior group. Ref.Bailey and love(20th edition) pg.733)
21, Continous Murmur is found in which arterial disease:
1,AV Fistula
2,Disecting aortic aneurysm
(ans: AV Fistula. Continuous machinery murmur is also found in Patent Ductus arteriosus PDA)
??22, which ion helps is potential:
1,Na+
2,K+
23,All of the following found in Horner’s syndrome, EXCEPT:
1,Ptosis
2,Meiosis
3, Hyperhydrosis
(ans:Hyperhydrosis, In Horners syndrome, unilateral Anhidrosis(ie,loss of sweating) is found)
24,Peau d’ Orange of Breast is due to:
1,Obstruction if lymph
2,Obstruction of ducts
3,Obstruction of arteries
4,Obstruction of Vein
(ans:Obstruction of Lymphatic vessels, Ref.Robbins Basic Pathology ,pg.354)
25,Reabsorption of Water is maximum in :
1,proximal tubules
2,Henles loop
3,collecting duct
(ans:Proximal tubules)
26,Carcinoid syndrome, ass. With except,
1,Diarhoea
2,Flushing
3,Acute appendicitis
4,cyanosis
(ans:?cyanosis)
27,Acute Pancreatitis associated with:
1,Alcoholic
2,Gall bladder stones
3,Elevated serum amalyse
4,All of the above
(ans:?all of the above)
28,Diagnosis of CA colon ,best indicated by:
1,colonoscopy
2,CT
3,Barium enema
4,x-ray
(ans:colonoscopy)
29,Radiation is less in:
1,CT
2,MRI
3,Fluroscopy
4,X-ray
(ans:MRI)
30,CA colon Marker:
(ans:CEA)
31,AFP(alpha feta protein ) is increased in:
1,Hepatic carcinoma
2,Renal carcinoma
(ans:Hepatic carcinoma)
??32,Ananencephaly is better diagnosed in which trimester:
1,1st trimester
2,2-3 trimester
33,Which of the following nerve is damaged by the fracture of the shaft of the humerus:
1,Radial nerve
2,ulnar nerve
3,median nerve
(ans:Radial nerve)
??34,Inversion and Eversion is done by?
35,Supination is done by:
(ans:Radio ulnar joint)
36,Fracture of supracondylar of the femur affects which nerve:
1,sciatic nerve
2,poplitial nerve
37,Vein used in bypass surgery:
1,Long saphenus vein
2,short saphenus vein
(ans:long saphenus vein)
?38,pulseless
(ans:Methionine)
39,Which is seen in RNA but not seen in DNA:
1,adenosine
2,Uracil
(ans:uracil)
40,Production of Uric acid is by:
1,Nucleic acid
2,Protein
(ans:??nucleic acid)
41,Hexose is not seen in:
1,Pentose
2,Glucose
3,Fructose
(ans:Pentose-5 ,and hexose is 8 )
42,Common complication of long bone fracture:
1,Fat embolism
2,Pulmonary embolism
(ans:Fat embolism.It is the commenest complication of long bone fractures like, femur fracture)
43,Definitive management for Tension pneumothorax is:
(ans:Thoracosynthesis)
44,Normal Fluid level in pericardium
1,100-150
2,50-100
3,150-200
45,polyhydroaminosis is increase in aminoitic fluid more than:
1,1000ml
2,2000ml
3,3000ml
46,HIV is associated with
1,Disseminated TB
2,Oesophageal candidiasis
3,MAI
4,all of the above
(ans:?all of the above)
47,Radiological findings of Ewings sarcoma(Rpt)
(ans:Onion Peel appearance)
48,Osteosarcoma affects:
1,Metaphysis
2,Diaphysis
3,Epiphysis
(ans:Metaphysis,Ref:SARP-surgery and orthopaedics ,pg 51)
49& 50,,Pseudomembranous colitis is caused by:
(ans:Clostridium Difficle)
51,Diagnostic test for Enteric Fever:
1,WIDAL test
2,VDRL
(ans:WIDAL.Enteric fever is the other name for Typoid fever, and the the diagnostic tests include, (mneumonic:BASU,ie, 1st week,B-blood culture,2nd week,A-agglutination test which is called as WIDAL,3rd week S-Stool culture and 4th week,U-Urine culture)
52,Complement Fixation test is:
1,Coombs test
2,Waserman reaction
3,VDRL
4,WIDAL
53,Iron Deficiency anemia is commonly caused by (Rpt)
(ans:Hook worm )
54,Which is a pre-toxin:
1,E.coli
2,Cholera
3,Salmonella
4,Staph.aureus
55,Trauma to spleen is best diagnosed by:
1,USG
2,CT
(ans:?USG)
56,Post splenectomy causes:
1,Thrombocytosis
2,Thrombocytopenia
3,Thrombocytopenia and leucopenia
57,Radial nerve
1,c5,c6
2,C5,C6,T1
(ans:C5,C6.T1)
58,ST elevation is seen in:
1,Acute MI
2,Pericarditis
3,Prinze metals angina
4,all of the above
(ans:all of the above)
59,cholera vaccination is effective:
1,6 months
2,3 months
60,Hepatitis B vaccine should be given as:
1,0,1,6months
2,0,1,6 days
(ans:0,1,6 months)
61,BCG should be given:
(ans:Immediately after birth)
62,Cellular fragments od Rabies vaccine is given at:
1,Anterior Abdomen
2,Deltoid muscle
3,Medial part of thigh
63,BCG is diluted with:
1,NS
2,Distilled water
64,Vitamin A should be given at:
(ans:6-9months)
65,Cancroid is caused by:
(ans:H.Ducrei)
66,Swan Gann Catheter is used to measure:
(ans:PCWP-pulmonary capillary wedge pressure)
67,CVP denotes,pressure of:
1,Right atrium
2,Rt.Ventricle
3,Left atrium
4,Lt.Ventricle
(ans:Rt.atrium,?as the vena cava(sup. N inf.) ends in Right atrium, central venous pressure helps in determing the venous filling)
68,Tricuspid Incompetence:
1,a wave
2,Hepatic pulsation
(ans:hepatic pulsation, pulsatile liver is a feature in Tricuspid regurgitation)
69,In a patient with Diabetic nephropathy , the anti hypertensive commonly used is:
1,ACE inhibitors
2,Ca channel blockers
3,B-blockers
(ans:ACE inhibitors)
70,Microaneurysm is the most common complication of:
1,Diabetic Mellitus
2,Hypertension
(ansiabetic Mellitus)
71,Most common cause of blindness in India isRpt. In March 2005)
(ans:Cataract)
72,Vitreous Hemorrage in Young patients is most commonly due to:
1,Diabetics mellitus
2,Retinal Detachment
3,Eales disease
(ans??Eales disease)
73,The lens used in astigmatism:
1,concave lens
2,convex lens
3,cylindrical lens
(ans:cylindrical lens)
74,seminoma is ca of:
(ans:testes)
75,Post.staphyloma:
1,myopia
2,hypermetropia
76,constriction of pupils:
1,only light reflex
2,light reflex and accommodation
3,refraction
(ans:??light reflex and accommodation)
77,??keratoconus
78,Inhaled forgeign body is seen in the:
1,Right apex
2,Right lower lobe
3,Left apex
4,Left lower lobe
(ans:?Right lower lobe)
79,Community acquired pneumonia:
1,pneumococci
2,streptococci
3,H.influenza
80,Placenta Praveica:
1,Painfull bleeding
2,severe abdominal pain
3,painless bleeding
4,all of the above
(ansainless bleeding, only Placenta Abruptia has painfull abdominal pain with bleeding)
81,A pregnant lady in her first trimester,complaints with bleeding, on examination the OS is closed:
1,Inevitable abortion
2,Threatend abortion
(ans:Threatened abortion,since the OS is closed it should be threatened abortion, is the os is opned, it can be inevitable abortion)
82,A primigravida with hypertension, when should we induce labour:
1,35 week
2,37 week
3,40 week
4,39 week
(ans:?37 week)
83,Anti-D Rh is given for:
(Rh positive father, and Rh neg. mother)
84,for a lady in her pregnancy, to prevent Tetanus, who should be immunized:
1,Tetanus toxid to the mother
2,Tetanus toxid to the infant
3,immunoglobin to the mother
(ans:TT to the mother)
85,Treatment for ectopic pregnancy:
1,salpihigotomy
2,observation
3,D&C
86,Misoprostol is given, except
1,Missed abortion
2,To induce labour
3,menorrhagia
4,postpartum hemorrhage

87,custodial rape is judged in
1,Judicial magistrate
2,district magistrate
(ans:judicial magistrate)
88,Anti-hypertensive contratindicated in pregnancy :
1,Hydralazine
2,Methyldopa
3,Enalapril
4,Amylodopine
(ans:?enalapril)
89,which is a pro-drug:
1,enalapril
2,clonidine
(ans:?enalapril)
90,pharmocodynamics deals with:
1,Mechanism of action
2,Excretion
91,Theurapatic index:
1,efficacy
92,Le fort fracture (Rpt in march 2005):
1,Maxilla
2,Mandible
(ans:Maxilla)
93,Metabolic acidosis is seen in:
(ansiabetic ketaacidosis,(Mneumonics:LUKD,Lactic acidosis,Uremia-renal failure,Ketoacidosis,Drugs like acetozolemide,phenformin etc,..in all these conditions, metabolic ketacidosis is seen)
94,Breast feeding is contraindicated in:
1,Mastitis
2,HIV carrier
3,Open TB
95,Condoms are more preferred because, they have:
1,Reduced side effects
2,reduced failure rates
(ans:reduced side effects)
96,Natural method of contraception::
1,Rhythm method
2,coitus interruption
3,breast feeding
4,all of the above
(ans:all of the above)
97,Infant Mortality rate is:
(ans:1000 live births)
98,Maternal mortility rate calculated as::
1,42 days after delivery
2,immediately after delivery
(ans:??42 days after delivery)
99,Total fertility rate is:
1,reproductive age of the female at 15-44
100,Eligible couple (rep. march 2005)
Recently married couple where the female is of fertile age
101,Not a grevious injury:
1,contusion of breast
2,multiple scars of face
3,fracture of femur
(ans:contusion of breast)
102,Drug indicated for hyperthyroidism during pregnancy:
1,prophyltiouracil
2,carbamazipine
(ansropylthiuracil)
103,No. of parathyroid glands:
1,4
2,6
3,2
(ans:4)
104,Features of Graves disease,except:
1,most common in male
2,tremor
3,pretibial myxodema
(ans:most common in males, graves disease is most commonly found among females, Tremor, pretibial myxodema are characteristic features of graves disease)
108,Hypercholestremia is commonly associated with:
1,hypothyroidism
2,diabeticsmelitus
109,All are features of hypothyroidism except,
1,lid retraction
2,myxedema
3,bradycardia
4,dry skin
(ans:lid retraction, it is seen in hyperthyroidism ,ie, as exopthalmus, when the patient has exophthalmus, there is lid retraction. Rest are features of hypothyroidism)
110,Virchos triad is seen in:
1,DVT
2,Hyper coagulity
3,Abdominal visceral malignancy
111,glasscow scale in death is:
1,0
2,3
3,5
(ans:3, patient is declared death when the GCS is 3)
112,panic attack is:
1,Acute anxiety
2,chronic anxiety
113,sucidal tendency is assoiciated with:
1,depression
2,schizophrenia
3,impulsive disorder
4,all of the above
(ans:?depression or ? all of the above)
114,short acting drug(or? Bezodiazephams)
1,diazepham
2,lorezepham
3,midasolam
(ans:?diazepham or ?midazolam. both are short acting drugs, if benzodiazepham is mentioned then diazepham will be more opt. lorezepham is a long acting benzodiazepham)
115,short acting anesthetic agent used for induction:
1,thiopental
2,ketamine
3,propofol
(ans:?propofol)
121,Hypnotic drug action is:
1,rapid elimination and slow distribution
2,slow elimination and rapid distribution
122,H+ ion is eliminated by
1,lungs
2,stomach
3,kidney
(ans: ?kidney)
123,First pass metabolism:
1,oral
2,sub cutaneus
3,sub lingual
4,rectal
(ans:??sublingual)
124,lassik content
1,xenon
2,excimer
3,yog

(ans:?excimer)
125,A 40 yr old male,has a rash over the groin, with a scaly lesion on examination:
1,candidiasis
2,Malazi furfur
3,Trichophyton

126,Most common nosocomial fungal infection:
1,candidiasis
2,aspergillosis
127,superficial inguinal lymph nodes drain from except:
1,testis
2,uterus
128,EBV(ebstein barr virus) except:
1,pancreas
2,burkitts lymphoma
3,glandular fever
(ans:?pancreas)
129,antiaggrent:
(ans:asprin)
130,anticoagulant is given in all conditions except:
1,pericarditis
2,DVT
3,pulmonary embolism
(ansericarditis)
131,OCP(oral contraceptive pills) is contraindicated in
(ans:hepatic failure)
132,Primary colours except:
1,green
2,red
3,white
(ans:white)
133,in colour blindness
(ans:?defect in 1 or more prime colours)
134,jovel bodies seen in
?
135,Most commin utero-vesicle fistula in India:
1,obstructed labour
2,pelvic surgery
(ansbstructed surgery)
136,Treatment for zollinger elison syndrome:
1,omeprezole
2,cimitedine
(ansmeprezol, proton inhibitors are best indicated )
137,2nd stage of labour:
1,increase in contraction
2,cervix dilatation
3,all of the above
(ans:?all of the above)
138,Heamolysis:
1,vit.E
2,vit.K
(ans:vit.E)
139,Free radicals:
(ans:vit.E, vit.E,A,C are anti-oxidants.)
140,Meckels diverticulitis is ass. With:
1,increased bleeding
2,ass/ diverticulitis
141,pharyngeal pouch?
142,Reflex nephropathy is diagnosed by (Rpt in march 2005)
(ans:MCU(micturating cysto urethrogram)
143,Heamocolpus is :
(ans:imperforate hymen)
144,Height doubles at:
(ans:4 years)
145,vitamin D deficiency is:
(ans:Rickets)
146,Enteric fever is caused by:
(ans: S.thyphi)
147,Tubercular focus at apex:
1,gommus
2,simsands
148,Nutritional essential in a child noted as
1,weight for age
2,height for age
3,arm circumference
149,Tyrosin becomes essential in
1,phenylketonuria
2,thyrosinosis
150, ,In intermittent porphyria what is the urine content:
1,uroporphyrin
2,porphobilinogens
(ansorphobilinogens,Ref:Oxford handbook of medicine,pg 708
151,Essential amino acids are named so:
Because they are not produced in the body
152,Enzymes are:
1,protein
2,Lipid
(ansrotein)
153,Poluunsaturated fatty acids,Except:
1,olieic acid
2,arachinic acid
154,All are bad cholesterol except:
1,HDL
2,LDL
155,MI enzymes are:
1,Tropin
2,Myoglobulin
3,LDH
4,all of the above
(ans:all of the above)
156,UTI contains microbes:
1,>10^6
>10^10
157,Which immunoglobulin is present in the breast milk:
(ans:IgA)
158,IgM denotes:
(ansrimary reaction)
159,Investigation of choice for Acute pancreatitis:
1,CT
2,USG
3,Xray
(ans:??CT)
160,What is the major side effect of streptomycin:
(ans:Ototoxicity)
161,which is of Obstructed COPD:
1,Bronchial asthma
2,Chronic bronchitis
3,bronchoectasis
4,all of the above
162.apoprotein of cholesterol:
1,apoE
2,apo A1
3,apoA2
163,Pancreatic calcification is due to:
1,alcoholism
2,Cystic fibrosis
3,idiopathic
4,heriditory
164,cholesterol is:
1,b-caratone
165,Breast milk ejection is due to:
1,oxytoxin
2,prolactin
(ansxytoxin,pralactin helps in secretion of milk)
166,Weight of a child triples at:
(ans:1 year)
167,recurrent laryngeal nerve supplies except:
1,cricothyroid
168,Not a solitary nodule:
1,cyst
2,adenoma
169,Cryptococcus
1,pigeon droppings
170,endemic dropsy:
1,sanginosus
171 ,in Malaria falciparum:
1,ring shaped cresents seen
172,potassium sparing drug:
1,spironolactone
2,furesemide
(ans:spironolactone,all other diuretics causes hypokalemia when given,spironolactone spares pottasium)
173,carbohydrates,proteins and fat metabolism occurs in which cycle:
1,krebs cycle
2,coherts cycle
174,pulse biferns occurs in:
1,AR
2,AS n AR
3,HOCM
4,all of the above
(ans:?all of the above)
175,Obstructive jaundice is due to:
(ans:gall stones)
176,Difference between human milk and cows milk:
1,iron deficiency
177,Post partum hemorrhage in a spontaneous delivery is due to:
(ans:uterine atony)
178,in SHOCK:
1,hypotension
2,hypoperfusion to tissues
3,hypoxia
4,all of the above
(ans:all of the above)
?179,hepatitis E
180,what is the lung findings in HIV:
1,disseminated TB
2,lupus vulgaris
(ans:disseminated TB)
181,Pneumoperitonium is seen in:
1,PA erect view
2,abdominal xray
182,Wilson disease is due to :
(ans:copper)
183,which is a mast cell stabilizer:
(ans:sodium chromoglycate)
184,drinking water test is done in:
1,acute congestive glaucoma
2,acute glaucoma
3,chronic glaucoma
185,osmolity
1,serum potassium
2,serum sodium
(ans?:serum sodium)
186,plaque is caused by
1,flea
2,tics
3,mites
(ans:?flea)
187,HONK (hyper osmality non ketoacidosis) occurs in:
(ansiabetes mellitus)
188,Mid day meals:
1/3 calories +1/2 protein
189,heamorrage leads to:
(ans:hypovolemic shock)
190,Most common stranglulation occurs in:
(ans:femoral hernia)
191,cough impulse is not seen in:
(ans:strangulation)
192,Acute appendicitis:
1,fever >42
2,anorexia,Right hypochondrial pain,fever
(ans: anorexia,Right hypochondrial pain,fever)
?193,active potential:
K+
194,Least conduction fibres:
1,C- fibres
195,Reticulocytes are found in:
(ans:hemolytic anemia,when hemolysis occurs, much of immature reticulocytes are produced in bone marrow,Ref.check kapithans ped. Book)
196,Which drug is not given in anaphylactic shock:
1,adrenalin
2,steroids
3,antibiotics
4,antihistamine
(ans:antibiotics)
197,Ovulation occurs:
1,14 days prior to next menstruation
2,14 days after menstruation
3,on 14th day
(ans:14 days prior to next menstruation
198,Complication in Diabetics mellitus occurs after :
1,6 years
2,8 years
3,12 years
199,glove and stockings sensory loss occurs in:
1,syringomelia
2,pheripheral neuropathy
3,all of the above
(ans:all of the above)
200,causative of sore throat:
1,Strep.pyogens
2,staphylococcus
(ans:strep. Pyogens, it is the causative for infective endocarditis)
?201,sup. Thyroid occurs frm:
1,4th branchial arch
202,DNA:
1,deoxyribose sugar
203,Mycobacterium grows in:
1,LG medium
204,Effective sterilization:
1,steam under pressure
2,hot water
205,?pasturation of milk determined by:
??methylene blue
206,Sharp instrument should be disposed in:
1,red bag
2,blue bag
(ans:?red bag)
207,term vaccine was named by:
1,Louis Pasteur
2,Jenner
208,Absence of sperms:
1,oligospermia
2,Azzospermia
(ans:azzospermia)
209,Duputryens contracture affects:
1,little finger
2,ring finger
3,middle finger
(ans:little finger)
210,GB (gullian barr syndrome) characteristic:
(ans:loss of limb reflex)
211,Co2 is carried in the plasma in the form of :
1,bicarbonate
2,carbonic acid
(ans:?bicarbonate)
212,glucose in ORS is used:
(ans:for the absorption of Na+)
213,disease caused by cotton:
(ans:bysinosis)
214,aniline dyes causes:
1,bladder Ca
2,renal ca
3,hepatic ca
(ans:bladder ca)
215,non alcoholic hepatitis,except:
1,Mallory hyaline fibrosis
2,steatis
216,COPD –all except,
1,RVF(right vent. Failure)
2,polycythemia
3,LVF(left vent. Failure)
(ans:?LVF)
217,Most common feature of essential hypertension:
1,headache
2,visual fortification
(ans:headache)
218,LVH is caused by:
(ans:essential hypertension, hypertension causes left vent. Strain)
219,Vagina is lined by:
1,Squamous cell epithelium
2,columnar cells
(ans:squamous cell)
220,Nitrates indicates:
(ans:,recent pollution)
221,first line prevention of epidemics:
1,confirmation of diagnosis
2,isolation
3,mass immunization
222,pin point pupils are seen in, except
1,datura
2,opiods
3,organophosphates
4,cerebello pontine hemarroge
(ans:datura(ectasy)
223,glomular filtration rate increases in:
1,hypertension
2,bowmen capsules pressure
3,increased osmotic pressure
224,hemorrhagic cystitis is caused by:
(ans:cyclophosphamide)
225,allopurinol:
1,inhibits the synthesis of uric acid
226,Gerotas fasia covering:
1,kidney
2,femur
227,gentamycin is not given orally because
228,which drug effects both bacterial and anerobic infections:
1,sparfloxcillin
2,pefloxacillin
3,norfloxacillin
4,ciprofloxcillin
229,Dark ground microscopy:
1,refracted light
2,polarized light
230,retained placenta causes
1,prolonged bleeding
2,sepsis
3,placental polyp
4,all of the above
(ans:all of the above)
231,exercise to increase the muscle strength:
1,isotonic
2,isometric
3,aerobic isotonic
232,Southern blot test:
1,DNA
2,RNA
3,PCR
(ansNA, northern blot test is for RNA, Western blot for HIV)
233,niacin is synthesized
1,tryptophan
234,Iron storage is:
1,transferring
234,In vitro fertilization:
1,artifical insemination
235,spinal cord ends at:
1,L2
2,S1
3,L1
4,S2
(ans:L2)
236,estrogen deficiency leads to:
1,osteoporosis
2,dysmenorrhea
(anssteoporosis, most of the post menopausal women get osteoporosis, because of estrogen def.)
237,curlings ulcer:
1,deudonal ulcers in burns
238,humoral cells are
1,B cells
2,NK cells
3,T cells
239,in leprosy
1,skin histocytes
2,swann cells
3,all of the above
240,bile secretion stimulation all, except:
1,vagus
?241,semicircular canal
242,cardiac output is determined by, except
1,stroke volume
2,cardiac contractility
3,cardiac rate
4,body surface area
(ans?:body surface area)
243,vessels to meninges:
1,external carotid
2,internal carotid
3,vertrebral
4,basilar
244,Artery supplied to sup. Temporal brain:
1,middle cerebral art.
245,epiphyseal plate fracture is classified by
1,harris
246,?directly acting drugs except:
?dopamin
247,pharmocodynamics and pharmacokinetics:
1,nitrates
2,amiodarone
3,verapamil
4,hydralazine
248,maternal mortality
? 1 lakh
249,pneumatocoel is caused by
(ans: staph. Aureus)
250,?okazi fragments

Mci (FMGE ) 2007 March Q Paper


1) LCAT activator, Lipoprotein

2) Moorens ulcer
a) UNDERMINED EDGE
b) Chlamidia

3)First symptom in pots paraplegia

4)Hiper calcemia is not seen in?
Skeletal metastasis

5)AuspitZ sign is seen in?

6)A 40 year old man with elevated mood?
mania

7)What is not common in Colles fracture?
non union

8) Man with fluid comig from the nose. What fracture?
Ans. Base of skull and para nasal sinuses

9) Terminal phalanges pulp space infection?

10)Roths spot is seen in?
SABE

11) Autoclaving?
a) 121 C 15Cu/m 15 minutes
b) 121 C 15Cu/INCH 11 minutes
Please correct me if I am wrong

12) BACTERIA MOST COMMOLY INVOLVED In VALVULAR HEART DISEASE?

13) Adrernaline is added to lignocaine injection for what ?
a) Pain relief
b)For longer action of anaesthetic

14) In sympathetic opthalmia what is involved?
ciliary body
iris

15) Coats disease what is correct?
bilateral
leucocoria

16) PH of tears?
7.0
7.5

17) Some strange opthalmological sign of conjuctivitis, in which condition it is found?
I hope the answer is vernal conjunctivitis

18) A question on Eale's disease

19)Constant change of refractive power seen in which cataract?
Intumescent
insipient, the options of that order, not staight forward.

I think by the time we pass this exam they will make us opthalmology professors.

20)what is injured most commonly in abdominal hysterectomy?
ureter
urinary blader, atlast a repeat

21) What passes with aorta through the diaphram?
vagus
azygous vein

22)what is not advised in shoulder distocia?
pressing over the pubis
over the perineum

23)Viagra like medicine is given in which condition?
primary pulmonary hypertention
secondary pulmonary hypertention

24) The commonest cause of medistinal mass shadow?
left ventricular hypertrophy

25)A question on chedahi higashi syndrome?

26)A case on negligance, contributory negligence will give protection in?
Civil negligance
criminal negligance

27)Medial epicondyl fracture most common involvement of?
median nerve
ulnar nerve

28)Most important nerve in hand function called by some name
answer was median nerve

29)Raised ICP will cause what?
hypertention, bradicardia
hypertention tachycardia
hypotention tachycardia
hypotention bradycardia

30)Head injury what is not found?
confusion
loss of consiousness
and some thing else which i dont remember

31) Brain calcification is not found in which condition?
toxoplasmosis
herpes simplex
rubella

32)A baby of 9 months wont be?
sit with support
dry by day

33) Decreased LAP score is found in which condition?
PNH
ALL
34) Test used to detect old blood stain?
benzedene
acid elution
takayama

35)Kala Azar is transmitted by what?
sand fly

36)what is not seen in Multiple Myeloma?
lymphadenopathy
hypercalcemia

37)following is not given in hypertention?
halothane
ketamine

38)Type of excimer laser used in myopia?
SeF
YsI, not very clear of the options

39)Cause of appearance of coloured halos?
corneal congestion

40)Rate limiting Enzyme in Glycolysis?
phosphofructokinase and something else

41)Substrate leve phosphorelation is seen in which step?
SuccinylCoA to Succinate

42)hyperacute rejection of renal transplant is by which mechanism?
ABO incampatibility
preformed antibodies
autoantibodies

43)The organ that is commonly involved in hyperacute rejection?
heart
kidney
liver

44)DOC pregnant woman with cerebral malaria?
quinine
chloroquine

44) cootton wool spots are most commonly seen in what?
diabetes
AIDs
hypertention

45) Heart failure cells are seen in what condition?

46) A Borrelia disease which I dont remeber is transmitted by what?
hard tick
soft tick

47)Which paranasal sinus opens in to upper nasal turbine?
frontal
sphenoid
ant ethmoid

48) Oculocardiac reflex is coomonly seen in what?
squint surgery
cataract surgery


49) Sodium Fluoride Inhibits what (added to blood sample,inhibits erythrocytic enzyme)?
Enolase

50)Deficiency of Sphyngomyeline causes what?
Nieman Picks Disease

51)Carrier of cholesterol from liver to tissue?
LDL

52)In starvation what does not take place?
Increase of insulin

53)Type of collagen found in Cartilage?
Type 1
Type 2
Type 3

54) Stain used for Corynebacterium Diptheri?
Mcfadeans
Alberts

55)Operation theatres are sterilized by?
Formaldehyde fumigation

56)Normal duration of action of Levonogestrol containing IUCD?
1 year
3 years
5 years
10 years

57)What is not usefull in hypercalcemia?
Calcitonin
Dialysis
Saline infusion

58)Milk ejection is facilitated by?
Oxytocin
prolactin

59) Erbs palsy what is involved?
C5 C6
C7 C8 T1

60)Type of squint seen in 6th nerve palsy?
Crossed
Uncrossed

61)Hyperaccussis is seen in which condition?
Otoschlerosis
Sensorinueral deafness

62)Ashleaf spots are seen in which condition?
Tuberous schlerosis

63)In Kartageners Syndrome what is not involved?
Bronchiectasis
Sinusitis
Situs Inversus
And some other nonsense which was the answer

64) Which of the following statement is false?
Granulamatous inflammation is found in chrons disease
Perianal lesions are common in Chrons disease
Strictures involving the colon are found in Ulcerative colitis
None of the above

65)Amino acid metabolism affected in marfans syndrome?

66) FNAC is usefull in all except?
Riedels thyroiditis
Follicular carcinoma
Medullary carcinoma
Pappilary carcinoma

67)Which is longest acting (not sure)?
Roxacurium
Mivacurium
Doxacurium was not given

68)Commonest complication involved in parenteral nutrition?
Air Embolism
And some others which I cant remember

69)Glycoside treatment is necessary in post infarct patient for what?
Ventricular ectopics
Atrial fibrillation

70)An upper motor neuron lesion of Fascial nerve will cause what?(Repeat.)
Cotralateral lower face paralysis
Ipsilateral lower face paralysis

71)Most common cervical carcinoma?
Squamous cell carcinoma
Adenocarcinoma

72) Glucose is not produced in muscle cells due to the lack of which enzyme?
Glucose 6 phosphatase
glukokinase

73)The drug that inhibits protein synthesis?
Streptomycin
Amoxycillin
Sulfonamide
Tetracycline

74) Ovarian artery is a branch of?
Abdominal aorta
Internal iliac

75) Hysterectomy is commonly indicated in postpartum for which of the following condition?
Placenta accrete
Uteral rupture
Atonia

76) All are features of hyperthyroidism except?
Low apetite

77) Most usefull prognostic indicator in HIV?
T helper count
T helper to ___ ratio

78) In asthma or anaphylaxis which is the Ig Involved?
Ig E
Ig M
Ig G

79) Entero enteric fistula is found in?
Chrons disease
Ulcerative colitis

80)Increased Amylase is seen in all except?
Perforative ulcer
Acute Appenticitis
Acute Pancreatitis

81)Spike And Dome Pattern Is Seen In?
Grant mal
Petit mal

82)The Substance used to determine renal perfusion?
PAH
Inulin

83) Metabolic Disturbance in pyloric stenosis?
Hyperchloremic metabolic alkalosis
Hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis

84)The dangerous consequence of flial chest?
Pneumothorax
And something else which I cant remember.

85) The administration of which of the following drug require monitoring?
Digoxin
Lithium

86) In Multiple Myeloma following is found in urine?
Ig light chain
Ig heavy chain

87)Western blot test is used for the analysis of?
DNA
RNA
Protein

88) Pancreatic Proteases are invoved in the activation of?
Trypsin
Pepsinogen
Bile salts

89) Which of the following is not supplied by Superior mesenteric artery?
Descending Colon

90) A Biochemistry question regarding the Glutamine production in the brain?

91)A question on the usage of a diuretic in renal failure or CHF not sure?
Hypochlorothiazide
Frusemide

92) An Anatomy question concerning coronary artery branch and its area of perfusion?

93) A Question concering Monteggio fracture?
Upper ulnar fracture and lower radial dislocation
Upper radial fracture and lower ulnar dislocation.

94) Hypothyroidism is diagnosed by which of the following?
Decreased T3
Increased TSH
Decreased T4

95) A hormone involved in the ferning of the endometrium? .
Eostrogen
Progestron

96) HCG Level increases to the maximum in what duration?
20 hours
48 hours
14 days
40 days(not sure about this option which is the answer)

97) The commonest uteral anomaly involved in infertility?

98) A question concerning the characteristic of obstructive pulmonary disease.?
Decreased FEV1/VC

99) Ileac crest involvement is common in which condition?
Reumatoid arthritis
Ankylosing spondylitis.

100) What causes dry mouth and urinary retention?
Opiate intoxication
Organophospurous intoxication

101) The minimum score in Glasgow coma scale?
0
3
1

102) What are the chances of missing a diagnosis of endometrial cancer after D and C?
2%
10%
40%

103) Where is the centre of urination located in the brain?
Pons
Medulla
Basal ganglia
Cerebellum

104) Where on the retina, no visual sensation is perceived?
Centre of the optic disc

105) Dentritic ulcer is caused by which of the following?
Herpes simlex

106)Commonest cause of oesophagic perforation?
Iatrogenic

107)Ameobic abscess is commonly located in which part of liver?
Anterior superior
Posterior superior
Etc.

108)Protrution of tongue is by which of the following structures?
Hypoglossalis nerve
Styloglossus
Glossopharangeus

109)Commonest cause of schlerosing cholangitis?
Iatrogenic

110)Necrosis of the myocardium takes place in what duration after coronary artery occlusion?
20 minutes
20 hours
48 hours

111) Austin flint murmer is seen in which of the following condition?

112)Large a waves are seen in, or what does large a waves in JVP represent?

113)Cryptococcal infection is treated by?
Cotrimaxosol

114)Best proposed theory of endometriosis?

115)Which of the following is not affected in mumps?
Tear glands
Testes
Ovaries

116)Commonest salivary gland where stones are found?(Repeat)
Submandibular
Parotid

117) peu de orange is

118)Malate shuttle is important in?(Repeat AIIMS 2001)
Glycolysis

119) Chaperones are important in?(Repeat AIIMS )
Protein folding

120) Asceptic necrosis takes place in which of the following fractures?
Fracture of olecranon
Fracture of femoral head was not given

121)When lot of specialists given lecture on a single topic what it is known as?

122)Most useful method of estimating the iron content of blood?
Serum Ferritin

123)Brown atrophy of the heart is caused which of the following?

124)Source of nitrogen atom in urea cycle?

125)Location of vena saphena magna in relation to malleolus?

126) Endometriosis can be present everywhere except?

127)Which of the following is most usefull for diagnosing typhoid in the first week?
Blood culture

128)Drug used treat hypertensive crisis in pregnancy?
Hydralazine IV

129) Which of the following drug is not combined with Zidovudine?

130) Chyluria is not caused by which of the following?

131) Amount of Water Lost in Feacus daily?

132) Depth for water seal in latrine?
2cms,
4cms,
6cms,
8cms

133) IMR for Japan? -
3,
13,
23,
33

134)Best method of treating Hyperkalemia?

135) Natural reservoir of Chikkun gunya virus?
Monkey
Birds
Pig

136) A question on Dengue Fever?

137) post nivirapine therapy d vertical transmission of hiv is reduced by wat percentage?
5 to 10
10 to 12
12 to 15
30
138) the best way to diagnose gall stones intraoperatively in cbd

139) wat is d time lag btw head and shoulder in dystocia.
10 sec 20 sec 30 sec or 40 sec

140)anesth of choice in asthamatics
a ketamine

141) mc location carcinoma tongue
a antr 1 third laterally
mid 1 third laterally
pstr 1 third laterally
dorsum

142) gland not innervated by facial nerve
a parotid
sublingual
submandibular

143) anatomical waste is put in
yellow bag
blue bag
red bag
black bag

144) board is set in which phase of trials in med
phase 3
phase 2
phase 1
phase 4

145) which of d followin r not included in phase 1 of clinical trials of med
cancer patients
old aged
healthy voluntee

146) SLE most definative indicator----- antiDs dna antibodies
anti phospholipid antibodies
anti smiths antibodies

147)hba1c indicates deficiency from -- 6 to 12 wks
--- 2 wk
3
2 wk

148)anderson disease ---- branching enzyme deficiency

149) best dig 4 avascular necrosis ---- bone scan
x ray
c t

150)false abt cancer oesophagus ----- caused by smoking and alcohol
upper 2 by 3 is sq cell ca
low 1 by 3 is adenocarcinoma

151)condition of penis not related to malignancy
hypospadia

136)cubital fossae petichae in dengue in cuf test 4 diag r minmal --- me 5,10,15,20

152)a ques on dhatura poisonin was asked....the usual syptioms were described

153)a ques on ipc section for custodial rape was asked

154) sec metastatic clacific occur in-- sarcoidosis, tb...

155)no of phc in india -----30000, 37000 , 20000 ,15000

156)contraindic in preg ------ enalpril

157)echinococcus in liver ---- up rt quad antrly
up rt quad pstrly
low lt quad antrly

158) who limit for hb in preg -- 11,7,9,10

159) man runs at 15 km per hour
energy spent --- 1000,500,600,800 k cal

160)nivirapine to child born to hiv affected mother within -- 24 , 36,48 , 72 hours

161)oedema plus a protein loss-- nephritic syndrome

162)antr fonta in baby closes by-- 18 mth,6, 3 or 9 mths

163) hypercalcemia all dec except---thiazides
i . v dilution
furosemide

164)bile duct investigation --------- HIDA SCAN

165)in urea cycle ammonia comes from --- ammonia and aspartic
glutamate and asparagine
ammonia plus glutamic acid

166)blind spot of marriotte---------- orra serrata
maculae
167)1 st sypmptom in eye after hiv infection--- papiledema
soft exud
hard exud
aneurysm

168)familia hypercholesteremia--- LDL RECEPTOR DEFICIENCY

169)subluxation of lens------- homocystinuria

170)heriditary spherocytosis causes---gall stones

171)a long ques on thalidomide was asked

172) contra india in renal artery stenosis--- ace inhibitors

173)sterile pyuria------ tb

174)d.o.c for chlamydia treatment--Doxycyclin

175)positive trendelberg sign seen in all except--- gluteus medius, maximus, minimus

176)pseudo tb is like --- none, tb like , plague like disease

177)vitk dependent all except-- factor 7 ,9,2 10

178)methyl alcohol poison give---ethyl alcohol

179)B 12 def caused by all eceptt---gasterectomy, ileal resection etc.

180)conditions leading to breast cancer are all except --
ans- breast feeding

181) Some options were given, you have to find out in which one you find dystrophic calcification, a Pathology question?

182) A question regarding the Possiblity of Vertical HIV Transfer If no profilaxis is given?

183) A question concerning the volume of the anterior chamber of the eye or similar question?

184) Sommering is a type of what cataract? After cataract

185) A question on Angle closer glaucoma? Cant recollect exact question.

186) A question about GI outlet obstruction syndrome.

187) The causes of Megaloblastic anemia are all except

188) An easy question regarding the prognosis of esophageal carcinoma, what is false?
Good Prognosis.

189) which of the following is not a cause of Intestinal perforation?
Typhoid
Surgery

190) Which of the following is autosomal recessive disease?

191) Hypertention leads to what complication?

192) Anderson is a type of? Cant recollect the exact question.

193) Heart Failure cells are found in which disease?

194) Crushmans Spiral are seen in?

195) Reids Index is seen in?

196) Psammoma bodies are seen in?

197) A patient with hypertention, proteinuria, hematuria. Your Diagnosis?
Acute Glomerulonephritis
Nephrotic syndrome
Nephritic syndrome.

198) Significant bacteriuria is said when--?

199) Which of the following appears first in diapetic retinopathy?
Neovascularisation
Spasm of arterioles

200) Commonest cause of ectopic pregnancy?

201) Commonest carcinoma causing bony metastasis?
Lung cancer
Clear cell carcinoma
Pheochromocytoma

202) Dose of warfarins is managed by?
INR

203) DOC Of PIH?

204) Which of the following is false about phenytoin?

205) A question on the ingradients of ORS?

206)What is not found in Horners Syndrome?
Miosis
Hyperhydrosis
Enophthalmos
Ptosis

207)Iron content of blood is estimated using?
TIBC
Ferritin
HB
Transferrin

208) An Incomplete question from endocrinology involving Hypothyroidism and Diabetes.(Grace marks given)

209) Most common peripheral artery to be affected in Berger’s Disease?

210) Another question, options didn’t make any sense (grace mark probably given)

211) P O2 remains the same. P Co2 is Increased -What type of condition is it?

212) If haemoglobin is saturated with CO, the hypoxia involved is?
Hystotoxic
Anaemic
Hypoxic

213) Red Infarct is seen in which of the following organs?
Heart
Intestine
Liver

214) Which of the following does not passes through sinus cavernosus?

215) Which of the following drug can be used for anaerobic Infections?

216) Which of the following drug is not given by oral route?
Streptomycin
Amoxicillin
Tetracyclin

217) A question on tumor markers?
CEA

218) There was a question involving neurofibrillay tangles?
Alzeimers disease.

219) Which of the following is most life threatening immediately?
Flial chest
Cardiac tamponade
Tention pneumothorax

220) ECG changes in atrial fibrillation does not involve?
Prominant p wave.

221) Sun flower Cataract is seen in which of the following conditions?
Chalcosis

222) Drug Of choice in Petit mal Seizures?
Ethosuximide

223) A patient with varicose veins, the question was concerning tropical changes of the leg?

224) A question concerning the inguinal hernia? Its anatomical boundaries.

225) A question regarding cohort studies.

226) DOC in Manic Depressive illness?
Lithium

227) Zollinger Ellison syndrome or intractable ulcers are treated by which of the following drug?
Omeprazol.

228) Investigation of choice in a patient with Pulmonary embolism?
V/P Mismatch.

229) Which is the largest of the following tumors?
Serous cystadenoma
Mucinous cystadenoma.

[Vandana.]

MCI (FMGE ) Question Paper - 2004

Anatomy
Q 1. False statement regarding pudendal nerve is:
A. Both sensory and motor
B. Derived from S2,3,4 spinal nerve roots
C. Leaves pelvis through the lesser sciatic foramen
D. It is the only somatic nerve to innervate the pelvic organs
Ans. C
Q 2. Wrong statement regarding the coronary artery is:
A. Left coronary artery is present in anterior interventricular groove
B. Usually 3 obtuse marginal arteries arise from left coronary artery
C. Posterior interventricular artery arises from right coronary artery
D. Left atrial artery is a branch of left coronary artery
Ans. B
Q 3. All are true statements regarding inguinal canal except:
A. Roof is formed by conjoint tendon
B. Deep inguinal ring is formed by transversus abdominis
C. Superficial inguinal ring is formed by external oblique muscle
D. Internal oblique forms anterior and posterior wall
Ans. B
Q 4. Right gastroepiploic artery is a branch of:
A. Left gastric
B. Coeliac trunk
C. Splenic
D. Gastroduodenal
Ans. D
Q 5. In FRACTURE of middle cranial fossa, absence of tears is due to lesion in
the:
A. Trigeminal ganglion
B. Ciliary ganglion
C. Lesser petrosal nerve
D. Greater petrosal nerve
Ans. D
Q 6. Motor supply to diaphragm is by:
A. Thoracodorsal nerve
B. Phrenic nerve
C. Intercostal nerves
D. Sympathetic nerves
Ans. B
Q 7. All of the following are supplied by facial nerve except:
A. Lacrimal gland
B. Submandibular gland
C. Nasal glands
D. Parotid gland
Ans. D
Q 8. In left coronary artery thrombosis, area most likely to be involved is:
A. Anterior wall of right ventricle
B. Anterior wall of left ventricle
C. Anterior wall of right atrium
D. Inferior surface of right ventricle
Ans. B
Physiology
Q 9. Tidal volume is calculated by:
A. Inspiratory capacity minus the inspiratory reserve volume
B. Total lung capacity minus the residual volume
C. Functional residual capacity minus residual volume
D. Vital capacity minus expiratory reserve volumes
Ans. A
Q 10. Surfactant production in lungs starts at:
A. 28 weeks
B. 32 weeks
C. 34 weeks
D. 36 weeks
Ans. A
Q 11. Initiation of nerve impulse occurs at the axon hillock because:
A. It has a lower threshold than the rest of the axon
B. It is unmyelinated
C. Neurotransmitter release occurs here
D. None of the above
Ans. A
Q 12. Albumin contributes the maximum to oncotic pressure because it has:
A. High molecular weight, low concentration
B. Low molecular weight, low concentration
C. High molecular weight, high concentration
D. Low molecular weight, high concentration
Ans. D
Q 13. After 5 days of fasting a man undergoes oral GTT, true is all except:
A. GH levels are increased
B. Increased glucose tolerance
C. Decreased insulin levels
D. Glucagon levels are increased
Ans. B
Q 14. Metalloproteins help in jaundice by the following mechanism:
A. Increased glucoronyl transferase activity
B. Inhibit heme oxygenase
C. Decrease RBC lysis
D. Increase Y and Z receptors
Ans. B
Q 15. Which protein prevents contraction by covering binding sites on actin and
myosin:
A. Troponin
B. Calmodulin
C. Thymosin
D. Tropomyosin
Ans. D
Q 16. Which of the following is not correct regarding capillaries:
A. Greatest cross sectional area
B. Contain 25% of blood
C. Contains less blood than veins
D. Have single layer of cells bounding the lumen
Ans. B
Q 17. A 0.5 litre blood loss in 30 minutes will lead to:
A. Increase in HR, decrease in BP
B. Slight increase in HR, normal BP
C. Decrease in HR and BP
D. Prominent increase in HR
Ans. B
Q 18. Single most important factor in control of automatic contractility of
heart is:
A. Myocardial wall thickness
B. Right atrial volume
C. SA node pacemaker potential
D. Sympathetic stimulation
Ans. D
Q 19. Which of the following is not mediated through negative FEEDBACK
mechanism:
A. TSH release
B. GH formation
C. Thrombin formation
D. ACTH release
Ans. C
Q 20. Force generating proteins are:
A. Myosin and myoglobin
B. Dynein and kinesin
C. Calmodulin and G protein
D. Troponin
Ans. B
Q 21. Which is true about measurement of BP with sphygmomanometer versus
intraarterial pressure measurements:
A. Less than intravascular pressure
B. More than intravascular pressure
C. Equal to intravascular pressure
D. Depends upon blood flow
Ans. B
Q 22. Secondary hyperparathyroidism due to vitamin D deficiency shows:
A. Hypocalcemia
B. Hypercalcemia
C. Hypophosphatemia
D. Hyperphosphatemia
Ans. C
Q 23. Maximum absorption of water takes place in:
A. Proximal convoluted tubule
B. Distal convoluted tubule
C. Collecting duct
D. Loop of Henle
Ans. A
Biochemistry
Q 24. Basic amino acids are:
A. Aspartate and glutamate
B. Serine and glycine
C. Lysine and arginine
D. None of the above
Ans. C
Q 25. Amino acid with dissociation constant closest to physiological pH is:
A. Serine
B. Histidine
C. Threonine
D. Proline
Ans. B
Q 26. Sources of the nitrogen in urea cycle are:
A. Aspartate and ammonia
B. glutamate and ammonia
C. Arginine and ammonia
D. Uric acid
Ans. A
Q 27. If urine sample darkens on standing: the most likely condition is:
A. Phenylketonuria
B. Alkaptonuria
C. Maple syrup disease
D. Tyrosinemia
Ans. B
Q 28. A baby presents with refusal to feed, SKIN lesions, seizures, ketosis
organic acids in urine with normal ammonia; likely diagnosis is:
A. Propionic aciduria
B. Multiple carboxylase deficiency
C. Maple syrup urine disease
D. Urea cycle enzyme deficiency
Ans. B
Q 29. Force not acting in an enzyme substrate complex:
A. Electrostatic
B. Covalent
C. Van der Wall
D. Hydrogen
Ans. C
Q 30. Cellular oxidation is inhibited by:
A. Cyanide
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Chocolate
D. Carbonated beverages
Ans. A
Q 31. Triple bonds are found between which base pairs:
A. A-T
B. C-G
C. A-G
D. C-T
Ans. B
Q 32. Which of the following RNA has abnormal purine bases:
A. tRNA
B. mRNA
C. rRNA
D. 16SRNA
Ans. A
Q 33. False regarding gout is:
A. Due to increased metabolism of pyrimidines
B. Due to increased metabolism of purines
C. Uric acid levels may not be elevated
D. Has a predilection for the great toe
Ans. A
Q 34. All of the following statements are true regarding lipoproteins except:
A. VLDL transports endogenous lipids
B. LDL transports lipids to the tissues.
C. Increased blood cholesterol is associated with increased LDL receptors
D. Increased HDL is associated with decreased risk of coronary disease
Ans. C
Q 35. A destitute woman is admitted to the hospital with altered sensorium and
dehydration; urine analysis shows mild proteinuria and no sugar; what other test
would be desirable:
A. Fouchet
B. Rothera
C. Hays
D. Benedict’s
Ans. B
Q 36. Which of these fatty acids is found exclusively in breast milk:
A. Linolaete
B. Linolenic
C. Palmitic
D. d-hexanoic
Ans. A
Q 37. Blood is not a newtonian fluid because:
A. Viscosity does not changing with velocity
B. Viscosity changes with velocity
C. Density does not change with velocity
D. Density changes with velocity
Ans. B
Microbiology
Q 38. Regarding NK cells, false statement is:
A. It is activated by IL-2
B. Expresses CD 3 receptor
C. It is a variant of large lymphocyte
D. There is antibody induced proliferation of NK cells
Ans. D
Q 39. Adenosine deaminase deficiency is seen in the following:
A. Common variable immunodeficiency.
B. Severe combined immunodeficiency
C. Chronic granulomatous disease
D. Nezelof syndrome
Ans. B
Q 40. A beta hemolytic bacteria is resistant to vancomycin, shows growth in 6.5%
NaCI, is non-bile sensitive. It is likely to be:
A. Strep. agalactiae
B. Strep. pneumoniae
C. Enterococcus
D. Strep. bovis
Ans. C
Q 41. False statement about the streptococcus is:
A. M protein is responsible for production of mucoid colonies
B. M protein is the major surface protein of group A streptococci
C. Mucoid colonies are virulent
D. Endotoxin causes rash of scarlet fever
Ans. A
Q 42. Toxin involved in the streptococcal toxic shock syndrome is:
A. Pyrogenic toxin
B. Erythrogenic toxin
C. Hemolysin
D. Neurotoxin
Ans. A
Q 43. A child presents with a white patch over the tonsils; diagnosis is best
made by culture in:
A. Loeffler medium
B. LJ medium
C. Blood agar
D. Tellurite medium
Ans. A
Q 44. A patient with 14 days of fever is suspected of having typhoid. What
investigation should be done:
A. Blood culture
B. Widal test
C. Stool culture
D. Urine culture
Ans. B
Q 45. All are true about EHEC except:
A. Sereny test is positive
B. Fails to ferment sorbitol
C. Causes HUS
D. Elaborates shiga like exotoxin
Ans. A
Q 46. An organism grown on agar shows green coloured colonies, likely organism
is:
A. Staphylococcus
B. E. coli
C. Pseudomonas
D. Peptostreptococcus
Ans. C
Q 47. Congenital syphilis can be best diagnosed by:
A. IgM FTAbs
B. IgG FTAbs
C. VDRL
D. TPI
Ans. A
Q 48. All are features of Ureaplasma urealyticum except:
A. Non gonococcal urethritis
B. Salpingitis
C. Epididymitis
D. Bacterial vaginosis
Ans. D
Q 49. Regarding HIV infection, not true is:
A. p24 is used for early diagnosis
B. Lysis of infected CD 4 cells is seen
C. Dendritic cells do not support replication
D. Macrophage is a reservoir for the virus
Ans. C
Q 50. A pregnant woman from Bihar presents with hepatic encephalopathy. The
likely diagnosis:
A. Hepatitis E
B. Hepatitis B
C. Sepsis
D. Acute fatty liver of pregnancy
Ans. A
Q 51. Virus causing hemorrhagic cystitis, diarrhea and conjunctivitis is:
A. RSV
B. Rhinovirus
C. Adenovirus
D. Rotavirus
Ans. C
Q 52. Cystine lactose enzyme deficient (CLED) medium is preferred over McConkey
agar in UTI because:
A. Former prevents swarming of proteus
B. Is a selective medium
C. Prevents growth of pseudomonas
D. Promotes growth of candida
Ans. A
Q 53. In which stage of filariasis are microfilaria seen in peripheral blood:
A. Tropical eosinophilia
B. Early adenolymphangitis stage
C. Late adenolymphangitis stage
D. Elephantiasis
Ans. B
Q 54. Pancreatic CA is caused by:
A. Fasciola
B. Clonorchis
C. Paragonimus
D. None
Ans. B
Q 55. All of the following are true except:
A. E.coli is an aerobe and facultative anaerobe
B. Proteus forms uric acid stones
C. E. coli is motile by peritrichate flagella
D. Proteus causes deamination of phenylalanine to phenylpyruvic acid
Ans. B
Q 56. Consumption of uncooked pork is likely to cause which of the following
helminthic disease:
A. Tinea saginata
B. Tinea solium
C. Hydatid cyst
D. Trichuris trichura
Ans. B
Pathology
Q 57. Enzyme that protects the brain from free radical injury is:
A. Myeloperoxidase
B. Superoxide dismutase
C. MAO
D. Hydroxylase
Ans. B
Q 58. Autoimmune haemolytic anemia is seen in:
A. ALL B. AML
C. CLL D. CML
Ans. C
Q 59. All of following are correct about thromboxane A2 except:
A. Low dose aspirin inhibits its synthesis
B. Causes vasoconstriction in blood vessels
C. Causes broncoconstriction
D. Secreted by WBC
Ans. D
Q 60. Which of the following complications is likely to result after several
units of blood have been transfused:
A. Metabolic alkalosis
B. Metabolic acidosis
C. Respiratory alkalosis
D. Respiratory acidosis
Ans. A
Q 61. The mother has sickle cell disease and father is normal. Chances of
children having sickle cell disease and sickle cell trait respectively are:
A. 0 and 100%
B. 25 and 25%
C. 50 and 50%
D. 10 and 50%
Ans. A
Q 62. Father has a blood group B, mother has AB; children are not likely to have
the following blood group:
A. O
B. A
C. B
D. AB
Ans. A
Q 63. Protein involved in intercellular connections is:
A. Connexin
B. Integrin
C. Adhesin
D. None of the above
Ans. A
Pharmacology
Q 64. All are reasons for reducing drug dosage in elderly except:
A. They are lean and their body mass is less
B. Have decreasing renal function with age
C. Have increased baroceptor sensitivity
D. Body water is decreased
Ans. C
Q 65. True statement regarding inverse agonists is:
A. Binds to receptor and causes intended action
B. Binds to receptor and causes opposite action
C. Binds to receptor and causes no action
D. Binds to receptor and causes submaximal action
Ans. B
Q 66. True statement regarding first order kinetics is:
A. Independent of plasma concentration
B. A constant proportion of plasma concentration is eliminated
C. T½ increases with dose
D. Clearance decreases with dose
Ans. B
Q 67. A diabetic female on INH and rifampicin for TB suffers DVT. She is started
on warfarin. PT is not raised. Next step should be:
A. Long term heparin therapy
B. Replace warfarin with acecoumarin
C. Switch ethambutol for rifampin
D. Use LMW heparin
Ans. C
Q 68. Beta blocker that can be used in renal failure is:
A. Propranolol
B. Pindolol
C. Sotalol
D. Nadolol
Ans. A
Q 69. All of the following are correct about steroids except:
A. Inhibit the release of arachidonic acid from vessel wall through action of
phospholipase A2
B. Bind plasma membrane receptors and following internalization influence
nuclear changes
C. Inhibit vascular membrane permeability
D. Increase glucose synthesis, glycogen deposition in liver
Ans. B
Q 70. All of the following statements are true except:
A. PGs and leukotrienes are derived from arachidonic acid
B. COX I is an inducible enzyme
C. COX II is induced by cytokines at sites of inflammation.
D. Leukotrienes cause smooth muscle constriction
Ans. B
Q 71. Which of the following is a false statement:
A. IV noradrenaline increases systolic and diastolic BP and cause tachycardia
B. IV adrenaline increases systolic BP, no change or increase diastolic BP and
causes tachycardia
C. IV isoproterenol causes increase in systolic BP, decreases diastolic BP and
causes tachycardia
D. Dopamine improves renal function, increases cardiac output and systolic BP
Ans. A
Q 72. Digoxin is not indicated in:
A. Atrial flutter
B. Atrial fibrillation
C. High output failure
D. PSVT
Ans. C
Q 73. All of the following statements are true about theophylline except:
A. Increase in dose is required in cardiopulmonary disease
B. Increases cAMP
C. Increase in dose is required in smokers
D. Inhibits phosphodiesterase
Ans. A
Q 74. Mechanism of action of tetracycline is:
A. Binds to A site and inhibit attachment of t-RNA.
B. Inhibits peptidyl transferase
C. Causes misreading of mRNA
D. Causes termination of peptide chain elongation
Ans. A
Q 75. False statement about selegeline is:
A. It is a MAO-A inhibitor
B. Does not cause cheese reaction
C. Not useful in advanced cases of on-off phenomenon
D. It is used in parkinsonism
Ans. A
Q 76. A patient on phenytoin for treatment of seizures develops depression for
which he is prescribed tricyclics. He now complains of lassitude and his Hb
reads 8. Next step in managing this patient should be:
A. Chest X-ray
B. MCV should be estimated
C. GGT should be estimated
D. Bone marrow examination
Ans. B
Q 77. Which of the following drugs would be removed by dialysis?
A. Digoxin
B. Salicylates
C. Benzodiazepines
D. Organophosphates
Ans. B
Q 78. In low doses aspirin acts on:
A. Cyclooxygenase
B. Thromboxane A2
C. PGI2
D. Lipoxygenase
Ans. B
Q 79. True statement about ticlopidine is:
A. Directly interacts with platelet membrane
B. Onset of action is delayed
C. Inhibits platelet gp IIb/IIIa receptors
D. Has fibrinolytic activity
Ans. A
Q 80. All of the following statements about methotrexate are true except:
A. Folinic acid enhances the action of methotrexate
B. Methotrexate inhibit dehydrofolate reductase
C. Non proliferative cells are resistant to metho- trexate
D. Methotrexate is used in treatment of PSORIASIS
Ans. A
Q 81. Drug containing two sulfhydryl groups in a molecule:
A. BAL
B. EDTA
C. Pencillamine
D. Desferioxamine
Ans. A
Forensic Medicine
Q 82. Gettler’s test is done for death by:
A. Drowning B. Hanging
C. Bums D. Phophorus poisoning
Ans. A
Q 83. Feature indicative of antimortem drowning is:
A. Cutis anserina
B. Rigor mortis
C. Washer woman’s feet
D. Grass and weeds grasped in the hand
Ans. D
Q 84. A boy has 20 permanent teeth and 8 temporary teeth. His age is likely to
be:
A. 9 years
B. 10 years
C. 11 years
D. 12 years
Ans. C
Q 85. A patient has sensation of bugs crawling all over his body. This may be
effect of:
A. Cocaine
B. Alcohol
C. Cannabis
D. Benzodiazepines
Ans. A
Q 86. A person comes in contact with other. This is called:
A. Locard principle
B. Quetlet’s rule
C. Petty’s principle
D. None of the above
Ans. A
Q 87. A patient of head injury, has no relatives and requires urgent cranial
decompression; Doctor should:
A. Operate without formal consent
B. Take police consent
C. Wait for relatives to take consent
D. Take magistrate consent
Ans. A
Q 88. A boy attempts suicide. He is brought to a private doctor and he is
successfully cured. Doctor should:
A. Inform police
B. Not required to inform police
C. Report to magistrate
D. Refer to a psychiatrist
Ans. B
PREVENTIVE & SOCIAL MEDICINE
Q 89. All are true about DOTS except:
A. Continuation phase drugs are given in a multi- blister combipack
B. Medication is to be taken in presence of a health worker
C. Alternate day treatment
D. Improves compliance
Ans. C
Q 90. Basanti a 29 years aged female from Bihar presents with active
tuberculosis. She delivers baby. All of the following are indicated except:
A. Administer INH to the baby
B. Withhold breastfeeding
C. Give ATT to mother for 2 years
D. Ask mother to ensure proper disposal of sputum
Ans. B
Q 91. Under the national TB programme, for a PHC to be called a PHC-R, requisite
is:
A. Microscopy
B. Microscopy plus Radiology
C. Radiology
D. None of the above
Ans. B
Q 92. A person has received complete immunization against tetanus 10 years ago,
now he presents with a clean wound without any lacerations from an injury
sustained 3 hours ago. He should now be given:
A. Full course of tetanus toxoid
B. Single dose of tetanus toxoid
C. Human tetanus globulin
D. Human tetanus globulin and single dose of toxoid
Ans. B
Q 93. The false statement regarding tetanus is:
A. Five doses of immunisation provide life long immunity
B. TT affords no protection in the present injury
C. TIG is useful in lacerated wound
D. TT and Ig both may be given in suspected tetanus
Ans. A
Q 94. A certain community has 100 children out of whom 28 are immunised against
measles. 2 of them acquired measles simultaneously. Subsequently 14 get measles.
Assuming the efficacy of the vaccine to be 100%. What is the secondary attack
rate?
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 20%
D. 21.5%
Ans. C
Q 95. A community has a population of 10,000 and a birth rate of 36 per 1000. 5
maternal deaths were reported in the current year. The MMR is:
A. 14.5
B. 13.8
C. 20
D. 5
Ans. B
Q 96. 10 babies are born in a hospital on same day. All weigh 2.8 kg each.
Calculate the standard deviation:
A. Zero
B. One
C. Minus one
D. 0.28
Ans. A
Q 97. Out of 11 births in a hospital, 5 babies weighed over 2.5 kg and 5 weighed
less than 2.5 kg. What value does 2.5 represent:
A. Geometric average
B. Arithmetic average
C. Median
D. Mode
Ans. C
Q 98. A man weighing 68 kg, consumes 325 gm carbohydrate, 65 gm protein and 35
gms fat in his diet. The most applicable statement here is:
A. His total calorie intake is 3000 kcal
B. The proportion of proteins, fats and carbohydrates is correct and in
accordance with a balanced diet
C. He has a negative nitrogen balance
D. 30% of his total energy intake is derived from fat
Ans. B
Q 99. A country has a population of 1000 million; birth rate is 23 and death
rate is 6. In which phase of the demographic cycle does this country lie:
A. Early expanding
B. Late expanding
C. Plateau
D. Declining
Ans. B
Q 100. In a population of 10,000, beta carotene was given to 6000; it was not
given to the remainder. 3 out of the first group got lung cancer while 2 out of
the other 4000 also got lung cancer. The best conclusion is:
A. Beta carotene and lung cancer have no relation to one another
B. The p value is not significant
C. The study is not designed properly
D. Beta carotene is associated with lung cancer
Ans. A
Q 101. A subcentre in a hilly area caters to a population of:
A. 1000
B. 2000
C. 3000
D. 5000
Ans. C
Q 102. In a community, an increase in new cases denotes:
A. Increase in incidence rate
B. Increase in prevalence rate
C. Decrease in incidence rate
D. Decrease in prevalence rate
Ans. A
Q 103. More false positive cases on screening in a community signify that the
disease has:
A. High prevalence
B. High sensitivity
C. Low prevalence
D. Low sensitivity
Ans. C
Q 104. The same screening test is applied to two communities X and Y; Y shows
more false +ve cases as compared to X. The possibility is:
A. High sensitivity
B. High specificity
C. Y community has high prevalence
D. Y community has low prevalence
Ans. C
Q 105. ELISA is performed on a population with low prevalence of hepatitis B.
What would be the result of performing double screening ELISA tests?
A. Increased sensitivity and positive predictive value
B. Increased sensitivity and negative predictive value
C. Increased specificity and positive predictive value
D. Increased specificity and negative predictive value
Ans. C
Q 106. While testing a hypolipidemic drug, serum lipid levels were tested both
before and after its use. Which test is best suited for the statistical analysis
of the result:
A. Paired t-test
B. Student’s test
C. Chi square test
D. None of the above
Ans. A
Q 107. Type 1 sampling error is classified as:
A. Alpha error
B. Beta error
C. Gamma error
D. Delta error
Ans. A
Q 108. Virulence of a disease is indicated by:
A. Proportional mortality rate
B. Specific mortality rate
C. Case fatality ratio
D. Amount of GDP spent on control of disease
Ans. C
Q 109. Which of the following diseases needs not to be screened for in workers
to be employed in a dye industry in Gujarat ?
A. Anemia
B. Bronchial asthma
C. Bladder cancer
D. Precancerous lesion
Ans. A
Q 110. Best test to detect iron deficiency in community is:
A. Serum transferrin
B. Serum ferritin
C. Serum iron
D. Hemoglobin
Ans. B
Q 111. Which of the following is not a complete sterilization agent:
A. Glutaraldehyde
B. Absolute alcohol
C. Hydrogen peroxide
D. Sodium hypochlorite
Ans. B
Q 112. Seasonal trend is due to:
A. Vector variation
B. Environmental factors
C. Change in herd immunity
D. All of the above
Ans. B
Medicine
Q 113. False statement about type I respiratory failure is:
A. Decreased PaO2
B. Decreased PaCO2
C. Normal PaCO2
D. Normal A-a gradient
Ans. D
Q 114. A 60 years old man presents with nonproductive cough for 4 weeks. He has
grade III clubbing, and a lesion in the apical lobe on X-ray. Most likely
diagnosis here is:
A. Small cell CA
B. Non-small cell CA
C. Fungal infection
D. Tuberculosis
Ans. B
Q 115. A 60 years old man is suspected of having bronchogenic CA. TB has been
ruled out in this patient. What should be the next investigation:
A. CT guided FNAC
B. Bronchoscopy and biopsy
C. Sputum cytology
D. X-ray chest
Ans. B
Q 116. A man presents with fever, weight loss and cough. Mantoux reads an
induration of 17 × 19 mm; sputum cytology is negative for AFB. Most likely
diagnosis is:
A. Pulmonary tuberculosis
B. Fungal infection
C. Viral infection
D. Pneumonia
Ans. A
Q 117. Pulmonary edema associated with normal PCWP is observed, which of these
is not a cause:
A. High altitude
B. Cocaine overdose
C. Post cardiopulmonary bypass
D. Bilateral renal artery stenosis
Ans. D
Q 118. An ABG analysis shows: pH 7.2, raised pCO2, decreased HCO3. Diagnosis is:
A. Respiratory acidosis
B. Compensated metabolic acidosis
C. Respiratory and metabolic acidosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis
Ans. C
Q 119. ABG analysis of a patient on ventilator shows decreased pCO2, normal pO2,
pH 7.5. Diagnosis is:
A. Respiratory acidosis
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Respiratory alkalosis
D. Metabolic acidosis
Ans. C
Q 120. In a patient of acute inferior wall MI. Best modality of treatment is:
A. IV fluids
B. Digoxin
C. Diuretics
D. Vasodilators
Ans. A
Q 121. A 26 years old asymptomatic woman is found to have arrhythmias and a
systolic murmur associated with midsystolic ? . Which investigation would you
use:
A. Electrophysiological testing
B. CT scan
C. Echocardiography
D. Angiography
Ans. C
Q 122. A patient complains of intermittent claudication, dizziness and headache.
Most likely cardiac lesion is:
A. TOF
B. ASD
C. PDA
D. Coarctation of aorta
Ans. D
Q 123. All of the following are true about ASD except:
A. Right atrial hypertrophy
B. Left atrial hypertrophy
C. Right ventricular hypertrophy
D. Pulmonary hypertension
Ans. B
Q 124. Mitral valve vegetations do not usually embolise to:
A. Lung
B. liver
C. spleen
D. brain
Ans. A
Q 125. A woman has septic abortion done, vegetation on tricuspid valve is likely
to go to:
A. Septic infarcts to lung
B. liver
C. spleen infarcts
D. Emboli to brain
Ans. A
Q 126. Kussmaul’s sign is not seen in:
A. Restrictive cardiomyopathy
B. Constrictive pericarditis
C. Cardiac tamponade
D. RV infarct
Ans. C
Q 127. A patient presents with engorged neck veins, BP 80/50 mmHg and pulse rate
of 100/min following blunt trauma to the chest. Diagnosis is:
A. Pneumothorax
B. Right ventricular failure
C. Cardiac tamponade
D. Hemothorax
Ans. C
Q 128. Which of the following is not seen on hemoglobin electrophoresis in
sickle cell anemia:
A. HbA
B. HbA2
C. HbF
D. HbS
Ans. A
Q 129. False statement regarding DIC is:
A. Thrombocytopenia
B. Decreased fibrinogen
C. Decreased PTT
D. Increased PT
Ans. C
Q 130. Thrombocytopenia occurs in all except:
A. Henoch Schonlein purpura
B. TTP
C. DIC
D. Leukemia
Ans. A
Q 131. A patient with an Hb of 6 g%, WBC count of 2000/cmm, has a normal
different count except for having 6% blasts, platelets are reduced to
80,000/cmm; moderate splenomegaly is present. Possible diagnosis is:
A. Leukemia
B. Aplastic anemia
C. HEMOLYSIS
D. lTP
Ans. A
Q 132. A patient being investigated for anemia has a dry marrow tap; peripheral
smear reveals tear drop cells. Most likely diagnosis is:
A. Leukemia
B. Lymphoma
C. Myelofibrosis
D. Polycythemia rubra vera
Ans. C
Q 133. Tumor associated with polycythemia vera is:
A. Sarcoma
B. Pituitary adenoma
C. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma
D. None of the above
Ans. C
Q 134. A young patient presents with jaundice. Total bilirubin is 21 mg%, direct
is 9.6 mg%, alkaline phosphatase is 84 KA units. Diagnosis is:
A. Hemolytic jaundice
B. Viral hepatitis
C. Chronic active hepatitis
D. Obstructive jaundice
Ans. D
Q 135. A young male with gallbladder stones shows the following test results:
serum bilirubin 2.5 mg%, Hb 6 g%, urine test positive for urobilinogen.
Diagnosis is:
A. Hemolytic jaundice
B. Obstructive jaundice
C. Hepatocellular jaundice
D. Protoporphyria
Ans. A
Q 136. An 18 years old male presents with massive hematemesis. He has history of
fever for the past 14 days for which he was managed with drugs. Moderate
splenomegaly is present. Diagnosis is:
A. NSAID induced duodenal ulcer
B. Drug induced gastritis
C. Esophageal varices
D. None of the above
Ans. C
Q 137. Urinalysis shows RBC casts. Likely source is:
A. kidney
B. Ureter
C. Bladder
D. Urethra
Ans. A
Q 138. A young man develops gross hematuria 3 days after an attack of URTI. Most
likely renal Pathology is:
A. Acute glomerulonephritis
B. Minimal change disease
C. IgA nephropathy
D. Membranous glomerulonephritis
Ans. C
Q 139. A patient’s CSF report reads as follows: sugar 40 mg%, protein 150 mg%,
chloride 550 mg%; lymphocytosis present. The picture is suggestive of:
A. Fungal meningitis
B. Viral meningitis
C. TB meningitis
D. Leukemia
Ans. C
Q 140. Lacunar infarcts are caused by:
A. Lipohyalinosis of penetrating arteries
B. Middle carotid artery involvement
C. Emboli to anterior circulation
D. None of the above
Ans. A
Q 141. Dinesh, a 56 years aged man presents with complaints of slowness of
movements, postural instability, tremors, rigidity and memory loss. Most likely
diagnosis is:
A. Multi-infarct dementia
B. Alzheimer’s disease
C. Parkinsonism
D. None of the above
Ans. C
Q 142. All of the following may be seen in Wilson’s disease except:
A. Cerebellar ataxia
B. Peripheral neuropathy
C. Dysphagia
D. Chorea
Ans. B
Q 143. An elderly man presents with features of dementia, ataxia, difficulty in
downward gaze and a history of frequent falls. Likely diagnosis is:
A. Parkinson disease
B. Progressive supranuclear gaze palsy
C. Alzheimer’s disease
D. None of the above.
Ans. B
Q 144. A chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s dementia is:
A. Trisomy 18
B. Patau syndrome
C. Trisomy 21
D. Turner syndrome
Ans. C
Q 145. All are true about Huntington’s disease, except:
A. Chorea
B. Depression, apathy
C. Progressive dementia
D. Cog-wheel rigidity
Ans. D
Q 146. A 30-year-old male complains of loss of erection; he has low testosterone
and high prolactin level in blood. What is the likely diagnosis:
A. Pituitary adenoma
B. Testicular failure
C. Craniopharyngioma
D. Cushing’s syndrome
Ans. A
Q 147. A patient meets with an accident with resultant transection of the
pituitary stalk. What will not occur:
A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Diabetes insipidus
C. Hyperprolactinemia
D. Hypothyroidism
Ans. A
Q 148. A woman has bilateral headache that worsens with emotional stress. She
has two children, both doing badly in school. Diagnosis is:
A. Migraine
B. Cluster headache
C. Tension headache
D. Trigeminal neuralgia
Ans. C
Q 149. A female aged 30 years, presents with episodic throbbing headache for
past 4 years with nausea and vomiting. Most likely diagnosis is:
A. Migraine
B. Cluster headache
C. Angle closure glaucoma
D. Temporal arteritis
Ans. A
Q 150. A woman complains of headache associated with paresthesias of the right
upper and lower limb. Most likely diagnosis is:
A. Trigeminal neuralgia
B. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia
C. Migraine
D. Cluster headache
Ans. C
Q 151. All of the following are features of MEN IIa, except:
A. Pituitary tumor
B. Pheochromocytoma
C. Medullary CA thyroid
D. Parathyroid adenoma
Ans. A
Q 152. A patient with Cushingoid features presents with hemoptysis. He shows no
response to dexamethasone suppression test. Most likely diagnosis is:
A. Adrenal hyperplasia
B. Adrenal adenoma
C. CA lung with ectopic ACTH production
D. Pituitary microadenoma
Ans. C
Q 153. An obese patient presented in casualty in an unconscious state. His blood
sugar measured 400 mg%, urine tested positive for sugar and ketones. Drug most
useful in management is:
A. Glibenclamide
B. Troglitazone
C. Insulin
D. Chlorpropamide
Ans. C
Q 154. Which of the following is not associated with thymoma:
A. Red cell aplasia
B. Myasthenia gravis
C. Hypergammaglobulinemia
D. Compression of the superior mediastinum
Ans. C
Q 155. A young basketball player with height 188 cm and arm span 197 cm has a
diastolic murmur best heard in second right intercostal space. Likely cause of
murmur is:
A. AS
B. Coarctation of aorta
C. AR
D. MR
Ans. C
Q 156. A patient presents with arthritis, hyperpigmen- tation of SKIN and
hypogonadism. Likely diagnosis is:
A. Hemochromatosis
B. Ectopic ACTH secreting tumor of lung
C. Wilson’s disease
D. Rheumatoid arthrits
Ans. A
Q 157. In myasthenia gravis, correct statement regarding thymectomy is:
A. Should be done in all cases
B. Should be done in cases with ocular involvement only
C. Not required if controlled by medical management
D. Should be done only in cases that are associated with thymoma
Ans. A
Q 158. Most common fungal infection in febrile neutropenia is:
A. Aspergillus niger
B. Candida
C. Mucormycosis
D. Aspergillus fumigatus
Ans. B
Q 159. The following group of tests should be done to optimise graft uptake in
bone marrow transplant:
A. Blood grouping
B. HLA matching
C. Culture for infection
D. All of the above
Ans. B
Q 160. True statement about neurocysticercosis is:
A. Seizures due to neurocysticercosis are resistant to antiepileptic drugs
B. Albendazole is superior to praziquantel in the treatment of above condition
C. Common presentation is 6th cranial nerve palsy and hemiparesis
D. Steroids are used in the management of hydrocephalus
Ans. B
Q 161. All of the following are true regarding a patient with acid peptic
disease except:
A. Misoprostol is the drug of choice in patients on NSAIDs
B. DU is preventable by the use of single night-time H2 blockers
C. Omeprazole may help ulcers refractory to H2 blockers
D. Misoprostol is DOC in pregnant patients
Ans. D
Q 162. A man presents with mass at duodenojejunal flexure invading renal
papillae. Histopathology reports it as lymphoma. True statement is:
A. II E stage
B. III E stage
C. IV E stage
D. Staging cannot be done until bone marrow examination is performed
Ans. C
Q 163. A 45 years male presents with hypertension. He has sudden abnormal
flinging movements in right upper and lower limbs. Most likely site of
hemorrahge is:
A. Substantia nigra
B. Caudate nuclei
C. Pons
D. Subthalamic nuclei
Ans. D
Q 164. True about haemophilia A are all except:
A. PTT increased
B. PT increased
C. Clotting time is increased
D. Serum levels of factor VIII are decreased
Ans. B
Q 165. IPPV can cause:
A. Barotrauma
B. Pleural effusion
C. Increased venous return
D. None of the above
Ans. A
Q 166. Characteristic finding in CT in a TB is:
A. Exudate seen in basal cistern
B. Hydrocephalus is non communicating
C. Calcification commonly seen in cerebellum
D. Ventriculitis is a common finding
Ans. A
Q 167. Vegetations on undersurface of AV valves are found in:
A. Acute rheumatic carditis
B. Limban Sack’s endocarditis
C. Non thrombotic bacterial endocarditis
D. Chronic rheumatic carditis
Ans. B
Q 168. Triage means:
A. Sorting out of cases on availability of medical resources and severity of
patient’s condition
B. Patients are divided into 3 groups
C. Severely injured patients are attended first in military camps
D. None of the above
Ans. A
PEDIATRICS
Q 169. Which of the following is not true about atrial septal defect:
A. There is a defect in region of fossa ovalis
B. Blood flow from left atrium to right atrium
C. Increased blood flow through lungs lead to pulmonary plethora
D. There is splitting of first heart sound
Ans. D
Q 170. A neonate presents with jaundice and clay white stools. On liver biopsy
giant cells are seen. Most likely diagnosis is:
A. Physiological jaundice
B. Neonatal hepatitis with extra biliary atresia
C. Neonatal hepatitis with physiological jaundice
D. Extra biliary atresia
Ans. B
Q 171. A newborn has dribbling after feeds. He has respiratory distress and
froth at the mouth. Diagnosis is:
A. Tracheoesophageal fistula
B. Tetralogy of Fallot
C. Respiratory distress syndrome
D. None of the above
Ans. A
Q 172. Ramu, a 8-years-old boy presents with upper GI bleeding. On examination,
he is found to have splenomegaly; there are no signs of ascites, or
hepatomegaly; esophageal varices are found on UGIE. Most likely diagnosis is:
A. Budd Chiari syndrome
B. Non cirrhotic portal fibrosis
C. Cirrhosis
D. Veno-occlusive disease
Ans. B
Q 173. A 5-years-old child suffering from nephrotic syndrome is responding well
to steroid therapy. What would be the most likely finding on light microscopy:
A. No finding
B. Basement membrane thickening
C. Hypercellular glomeruli
D. Fusion of foot processes
Ans. A
Q 174. Most common cause of urinary obstruction in a male infant is:
A. Anterior urethral valves
B. Posterior urethral valves
C. Stone
D. Stricture
Ans. B
Q 175. A 5-years-old child presents with a calculus of size 2 cm in the upper
ureter. He also complains of haematuria. USG shows no further obstruction in the
urinary tract. Treatment of choice for this patient would be:
A. Ureterolithotomy
B. Endoscopic removal
C. ESWL
D. Observation
Ans. C
Q 176. A patient presents with LVH and pulmonary complications. ECG shows left
axis deviation. Most likely diagnosis is:
A. TOF
B. Tricuspid atresia
C. TAPVC
D. VSD
Ans. B
Q 177. Potts shunt is anastomosis of:
A. Right subclavian artery to right pulmonary artery
B. Descending aorta to left pulmonary artery
C. Left subclavian to left pulmonary artery
D. Ascending aorta to right pulmonary artery
Ans. B
Q 178. A neonate has recurrent attacks of abdominal pain, restless, irritability
and diaphoresis on feeding. Cardiac auscultation reveals a nonspecific murmur.
He is believed to be at risk for MI. Likely diagnosis is:
A. ASD
B. VSD
C. TOF
D. Anomalous coronary artery
Ans. D
Q 179. A child aged 2 years presents with nonspecific symptoms suggestive of
anemia. On peripheral blood smear target cells are seen. He has hypochromic
microcytic picture and Hb of 6 gm%. He also has ‘a positive family history’.
Next investigation of choice is:
A. Hb electrophoresis
B. Coombs’ test
C. liver function tests
D. Osmotic fragility test
Ans. A
Q 180. Most common cause of meningitis in children between 6 months to 2 years
of age is:
A. Pneumococcus
B. Staphylococcus
C. H. influenzae
D. E. coli
Ans. C
Q 181. A child presents with seborrheic dermatitis, lytic skull lesions, ear
discharge and hepatosplenomegaly. Likely diagnosis is:
A. Leukemia
B. Lymphoma
C. Histiocytosis X
D. Multiple myeloma
Ans. C
Q 182. Which of the following is true regarding cretinism:
A. Short limbs compared to trunk
B. Proportionate shortening
C. Short limbs and short stature
D. Short limbs and long stature
Ans. C
Q 183. Manifestations of endemic cretinism include:
A. Deafness and facial nerve involvement
B. Blindness and hypothyroidism
C. Goitre and hypothyroidism
D. Multinodular goitre and mental retardation
Ans. A
Q 184. A 10 day old male pseudohermaphrodite child with 46 XY karyotype presents
with BP of 110/80 mmHg. Most likely enzyme deficiency is:
A. 21 hydroxylase
B. 17 hydroxylase
C. 11 hydroxylase
D. 3-beta hydroxylase
Ans. B
Q 185. Treatment of Kawasaki disease in children is:
A. Oral steroids
B. IV steroids
C. IV Ig
D. Mycophenolate mefentil
Ans. C
Q 186. A neonate delivered at 32 weeks, is put on a ventilator. X-ray shows
‘white out lung’ and ABG reveals PO2 of 75. Ventilator settings are on, FIO2 of
70, and rate of 50/minute. Next step to be taken should be:
A. Increase rate to 60 per minute
B. Increase FIO2 to 80
C. Continue ventilation with the same settings
D. Weaning ventilator
Ans. C
Dermatology
Q 187. A man aged 50 years presents with, alopecia, boggy scalp swelling and
easily pluckable hair. Next step in establishing the diagnosis would be:
A. KOH smear
B. Culture sensitivity
C. Biopsy
D. None of the above
Ans. A
Q 188. Most common organism causing tinea capitis is:
A. Trichophyton tonsurans
B. Microsporum
C. Epidermophyton
D. Candida albicans
Ans. A
Q 189. A young man aged 19 years develops a painless penile ulcer 9 days after
sexual intercourse with a professional SEX worker. Most likely diagnosis is:
A. Chancroid
B. Herpes
C. Primary chancre
D. Traumatic ulcer
Ans. C
Q 190. An infant presents with itchy lesions over the groin and prepuce. All of
the following are indicated in this patient except:
A. Bathe and apply scabicidal solution
B. Treatment should be extended to all family members
C. Dispose all clothes by burning
D. Start the patient on IV antibiotics
Ans. D
Q 191. A boy aged 8 years from Tamil Nadu presents with a white, non anesthetic,
nonscaly, hypopigmented macule on his face. Most likely diagnosis is:
A. Pityriasis alba
B. Pityriasis versicolor
C. Indeterminate leprosy
D. Pure neuritic leprosy
Ans. C
Q 192. A 20 years old, male patient, from jaipur presents with an erythematous
lesion on the cheek with central crusting. Most likely diagnosis is:
A. SLE
B. LUPUS vulgaris
C. Chillblains
D. Cutaneous leishmaniasis
Ans. D
Q 193. A 19 year old pregnant girl presents with light brown pigmentation over
the malar eminences. Most likely diagnosis is:
A. Chloasma
B. SLE
C. Melasma
D. Melanoma
Ans. A
Q 194. A girl aged 19, presents with arthritis and a photosensitive rash on the
cheek. Likely diagnosis is:
A. SLE
B. Chloasma
C. Stevens Johnson syndrome
D. Lyme’s disease
Ans. A
Psychiatry
Q 195. A patient with pneumonia for 5 days is admitted to the hospital. He
suddenly ceases to recognize the doctor and staff, thinks that he is in jail and
complains of scorpions attacking him. He is in altered sensorium. This condition
is:
A. Acute delirium
B. Acute dementia
C. Acute schizophrenia
D. Acute paranoia
Ans. A
Q 196. A person missing from home, is found wandering purposefully. He is well
groomed, and denies of having any amnesia. Most likely diagnosis is:
A. Dissociative fugue
B. Dissociative amnesia
C. Schizophrenia
D. Dementia
Ans. A
Q 197. Babu, a 40 years aged male complains of sudden onset palpitations and
apprehension. He is sweating for the last 10 minutes and fears of impending
death. Diagnosis is:
A. Hysteria
B. Cystic fibrosis
C. Panic attack
D. Generalized anxiety disorder
Ans. C
Q 198. A lady, while driving a car meets with an accident. She was admitted in
an ICU for 6 months. After being discharged, she often gets up in night and
feels terrified She is afraid to sit in a car again. The diagnosis is:
A. Panic disorder
B. Phobia
C. Conversion disorder
D. Post traumatic stress disorder
Ans. D
Q 199. A patient present with waxy flexibility, negativitism and rigidity.
Diagnosis is:
A. Catatonic schizophrenia
B. Paranoid schizophrenia
C. Hebephrenic schizophrenia
D. Simple schizophrenia
Ans. A
Q 200. Chandu, age 32 presents with abdominal pain and vomiting. He also
complains of some psychiatric symptoms and visual hallucinations. Most likely
diagnosis is:
A. Intermittent porphyria
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Hyperthyroidism
D. Hysteria
Ans. A
Q 201. Basanti 27 years aged, female thinks her nose is ugly; her idea is fixed
and not shared by anyone else. Whenever she goes out of home, she hides her face
with a cloth. She visits a Surgeon. Next step would be:
A. Investigate and then operate
B. Refer to psychiatrist
C. Reassure the patient
D. Immediate operation
Ans. B
Surgery
Q 202. A male aged 60 years has foul breath. He regurgitates food that is eaten
3 days ago. Likely diagnosis is:
A. Zenker’s diverticulum
B. Meckel’s diverticulum
C. Scleroderma
D. Achalasia cardia
Ans. A
Q 203. Most common site for squamous cell carcinoma esophagus is:
A. Upper third
B. Middle third
C. Lower third
D. Gastro-esophageal junction.
Ans. B
Q 204. What is true regarding congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis:
A. More common in girls
B. Hypochloremic alkalosis
C. Heller’s myotomy is the procedure of choice.
D. Most often manifests at birth
Ans. B
Q 205. Patient presents with recurrent duodenal ulcer of 2.5 cm size. Procedure
of choice is:
A. Truncal vagotomy and antrectomy
B. Truncal vagotomy and gastrojejunostomy
C. Highly selective vagotomy
D. Laparoscopic vagotomy and gastrojejunostomy
Ans. A
Q 206. All are features of hyperplastic tuberculosis of gastrointestinal tract
except:
A. Presents with a mass in RIF
B. Barium meal shows pulled up caecum
C. Most common site is ileocecal junction
D. ATT is the treatment of choice
Ans. D
Q 207. A 56 year old woman has not passed stools for the last 14 days. X-ray
shows no air/fluid levels. Probable diagnosis is:
A. Paralytic ileus
B. Aganglionosis of the colon
C. Intestinal pseudo-obstruction
D. Duodenal obstruction.
Ans. C
Q 208. A man aged 60 years has history of IHD and atherosclerosis. He presents
with abdominal pain and maroon stools. Most likely diagnosis is:
A. Acute intestinal obstruction
B. Acute mesenteric ischemia
C. Peritonitis
D. Appendicitis
Ans. B
Q 209. True statement regarding ‘fistula in ano’ is:
A. Posterior fistulae have straight tracks
B. High fistulae can be operated with no fear of incontinence
C. High and low divisions are made in relation to the pelvic floor
D. Intersphincteric is the most common type
Ans. D
Q 210. In a 27 year old male most common cause of a colovesical fistula would
be:
A. Crohn’s disease
B. Ulcerative colitis
C. TB
D. Cancer colon
Ans. A
Q 211. Following trauma, a patient presents with a drop of blood at the tip of
urinary meatus. He complains of inability to pass urine. Next step should be:
A. IVP should be done
B. MCU should be done
C. Catheterize, drain bladder and remove the catheter thereafter
D. Catheterize, drain bladder and retain the catheter thereafter
Ans. D
Q 212. Chandu, a 45 years male shows calcification on the right side of his
abdomen in an AP view. In lateral view the calcification is seen to overlie the
spine. Most likely diagnosis is:
A. Gallstones
B. Calcified mesenteric nodes
C. Renal stones
D. Calcified rib
Ans. C
Q 213. CA prostate commonly metastasises to the vertebrae because:
A. Valveless communication exist with Batson’s prevertebral plexus
B. Via drainage to sacral lymph node
C. Of direct spread
D. None of above
Ans. A
Q 214. Following sexual intercourse, a person develops pain in the left testes
that does not get relieved on elevation of scrotum. Diagnosis is:
A. Epididymo-orchitis
B. Torsion testis
C. Fournier’s gangrene
D. Tumor testes
Ans. B
Q 215. A testicular tumor in a man aged 60 years is most likely to be:
A. Germ cell tumor
B. Sertoli cell tumor
C. Teratocarcinoma
D. Lymphoma
Ans. D
Q 216. A patient presents with bilateral proptosis, heat intolerance and
palpitations. Most unlikely diagnosis here would be:
A. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
B. Thyroid adenoma
C. Diffuse thyroid igoitre
D. Reidel’s thyroiditis
Ans. D
Q 217. A patient with long standing multinodular goitre develops hoarseness of
voice. Also, the swelling undergoes sudden increase in size. Likely diagnosis
is:
A. Follicular CA
B. Papillary CA
C. Medullary CA
D. Anaplastic CA
Ans. A
Q 218. A patient presents with swelling in the neck following a thyroidectomy.
What is the most likely resulting complication:
A. Respiratory obstruction
B. Recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy
C. Hypovolemia
D. Hypocalcemia
Ans. A
Q 219. A patient on the same evening following thyroidectomy presents with a
swelling in the neck and difficulty in breathing. Next management would be:
A. Open sutures immediately
B. Intubate oro-tracheally
C. Wait and watch
D. Administer oxygen by mask
Ans. A
Q 220. Patient presents with neck swelling and respiratory distress few hours
after a thyroidectomy Surgery . Next management would be:
A. Open immediately
B. Tracheostomy
C. Wait and watch
D. Oxygen by mask
Ans. A
Q 221. A patient undergoes thyroid Surgery , following which he develops
perioral tingling. Blood Ca2+ is 8.9 mEq. Next step is:
A. Vitamin D orally
B. Oral Ca2+ and vitamin D
C. Intravenous calcium gluconate and serial monitoring
D. Wait for Ca2+ to decrease to < 7.0 before taking further action
Ans. C
Q 222. A case of blunt trauma is brought to the emergency in a state of shock.
He is not responding to IV crystalloids. Next step in his management would be:
A. Immediate laparotomy
B. Blood transfusion
C. Albumin transfusion
D. Abdominal compression
Ans. A
Q 223. Babu is brought to the emergency as a case of road- traffic accident. He
is hypotensive. Most likely ruptured organ is:
A. spleen
B. Mesentery
C. kidney
D. Rectum
Ans. A
Q 224. A patient is brought to the emergency as a case of head injury, following
a head on collision road traffic accident. His BP is 90/60 mmHg. Tachycardia is
present. Most likely diagnosis is:
A. EDH
B. SDH
C. Intracranial hemorrhage
D. Intra-abdominal bleed
Ans. D
Q 225. Ulcer that may develop in burn tissue is:
A. Marjolin’s
B. Rodent
C. Melanoma
D. Curling’s
Ans. A
Q 226. An elderly man presents with history of abdominal pain. He is found to
have a fusiform dilatation of the descending aorta. Likely cause is:
A. Trauma
B. Atherosclerosis
C. Right ventricular failure
D. Syphilitic aortitis
Ans. B
Q 227. All of the following are correct regarding AV fistula except:
A. Arterialization of the veins
B. Proximal compression causes increase in heart rate
C. Overgrowth of a limb
D. Causes LV enlargement and LV failure
Ans. B
Q 228. All of the following are correct about axillary vein thrombosis except:
A. May be caused by a cervical rib
B. Treated with IV anticoagulant
C. Embolectomy is done in all cases
D. May occur following excessive exercise
Ans. C
Q 229. A 80 year old patient presents with a midline tumor of the lower jaw,
involving the alveolar margin. He is edentulous. Treatment of choice is:
A. Hemimandibulectomy
B. Commando operation
C. Segmental mandiblectbmy
D. Marginal mandibulectomy
Ans. C
Q 230. Most common cause of unilateral parotid swelling in a 27 year old male
is:
A. Warthin’s tumor
B. Pleomorphic adenoma
C. Adenocarcinoma
D. Haemangioma
Ans. B
Q 231. A 45 year old woman presents with a hard and mobile lump in the breast.
Next investigation is:
A. FNAC
B. USG
C. Mammography
D. Excision biopsy
Ans. A
Q 232. A 45 years old man presents with progressive cervical lymph nodes
enlargement since 3 month. Most diagnostic investigation is:
A. X-ray soft tissue
B. FNAC
C. Lymph node biopsy
D. None of the above
Ans. C
Q 233. All of the following are true about fibrolamellar carcinoma of the liver
except:
A. Equal incidence in males and females
B. Better prognosis than HCC
C. AFP levels always greater than > 1000
D. Occur in younger individuals
Ans. C
Q 234. A child presents with an expansible swelling on medial side of the nose .
Likely diagnosis is:
A. Teratoma
B. Meningocele
C. Dermoid cyst
D. Lipoma
Ans. B
Orthopaedics
Q 235. Following anterior dislocation of the shoulder, a patient develops
weakness of flexion at elbow and lack of sensation over the lateral aspect fore
arm. Nerve injured is:
A. Radial nerve
B. Musculocutaneous nerve
C. Axillary nerve
D. Ulnar nerve
Ans. B
Q 236. Babloo a 10 years old boy presents with FRACTURE of humerus. X-ray
reveals a lytic lesion at the upper end. Likely condition is:
A. Unicameral bone cyst
B. Osteosarcoma
C. Osteoclastoma
D. Aneurysmal bone cyst
Ans. A
Q 237. A patient sustained injury to the upper limb 3 years back. He now
presents with valgus deformity in the elbow and paresthesias over the medial
border of the hand. The injury is likely to have been:
A. Supracondylar FRACTURE humerus
B. Lateral condyle FRACTURE humerus
C. Medial condyle FRACTURE humerus
D. Posterior dislocation of the humerus
Ans. B
Q 238. A woman aged 60 years suffers a fall. Her lower limb is abducted and
externally rotated. Likely diagnosis is:
A. Neck of femur FRACTURE
B. Intertrochanteric femur FRACTURE
C. Posterior dislocation of hip
D. Anterior dislocation of hip
Ans. D
Q 239. Triple arthrodesis involves:
A. Calcaneocuboid, talonavicular and talocalcaneal
B. Tibiotalar, calcaneocuboid and talonavicular
C. Ankle joint, calcaneocuboid and talonavicular
D. None of the above
Ans. A
Q 240. Babu a 19 years old male has a small circumscribed sclerotic swelling
over diaphysis of femur. Likely diagnosis is:
A. Osteoclastoma
B. Osteosarcoma
C. Ewing’s sarcoma
D. Osteoid osteoma
Ans. D
Q 241. Most common site of osteogenic sarcoma is:
A. Femur, upper end
B. Femur, lower end
C. Tibia, upper end
D. Tibia, lower end
Ans. B
Q 242. Involvement of PIP joint, DIP joint and the carpometacarpal joint of base
of thumb with sparing the wrist is seen in:
A. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Osteoarthritis
C. Psoriatic arthritis
D. Pseudogout
Ans. B
Q 243. The pivot test is for:
A. Anterior cruciate ligament
B. Posterior cruciate ligament
C. Medial meniscus
D. Lateral meniscus
Ans. A
Q 244. Iliotibial band contracture following polio is likely to result in:
A. Extension at hip
B. Extension at knee
C. Flexion at hip and knee
D. Extension at hip and knee
Ans. C
Anaesthesia
Q 245. All of the following agents can be given for induction of Anaesthesia in
children except:
A. Halothane
B. Servoflurane
C. Morphine
D. Nitrous oxide
Ans. C
Q 246. Anaesthetic agent of choice in renal failure is:
A. Methoxyflurane
B. Isoflurane
C. Enflurane
D. None of the above
Ans. B
Q 247. A man with alcoholic liver failure requires general Anaesthesia for
Surgery . Anaesthetic agent of choice is:
A. Ether
B. Halothane
C. Methoxyflurane
D. Isoflurane
Ans. D
Q 248. All of the following are true except:
A. Halothane is good as an analgesic agent
B. Halothane sensitises the heart to action of catacholamines
C. Halothane relaxes brochi & is preferred as anaesthetics
D. Halothane may cause liver cell necrosis
Ans. A
Ophthalmology
Q 249. A patient has a miotic pupil, IOP= 25, normal anterior chamber, hazy
cornea and a shallow anterior chamber in fellow eye . Diagnosis is:
A. Acute anterior uveitis
B. Acute angle closure glaucoma
C. Acute open angle glaucoma
D. Senile cataract
Ans. A
Q 250. A woman complains of coloured haloes around lights in the evening, with
nausea and vomiting, IOP is normal. Diagnosis is:
A. Incipient stage, glaucoma open angle
B. Prodromal stage, closed angle glaucoma
C. Migraine
D. Raised ICT
Ans. B
Q 251. Babloo, a 5 years old child, presents with large cornea, lacrimation and
photophobia. Diagnosis is:
A. Megalocornea
B. Congenital glaucoma
C. Congenital cataract
D. Anterior uveitis
Ans. B
Q 252. Herpes zoster ophthalmicus causes all except:
A. Nummular keratitis
B. Vitreal haemorrhage
C. Uveitis
D. Cranial nerve palsies
Ans. B
Q 253. Bilateral ptosis is not seen in:
A. Marfan’s syndrome
B. Myaesthenia gravis
C. Myotonic dystrophy
D. Kearns-Sayre syndrome
Ans. A
Q 254. eye is deviated laterally and downwards and patient is unable to look up
or medially. Likely nerve involved is:
A. Trochlear
B. Trigeminal
C. Oculomotor
D. Abducent
Ans. C
Q 255. Left sided lateral gaze is affected in lesion of:
A. Right frontal lobe
B. Right occipital lobe
C. Left occipital lobe
D. Left frontal lobe
Ans. A
Q 256. An elderly male with heart disease presents with sudden loss of vision in
one eye . Examination reveals cherry red spot. Diagnosis is:
A. Central retinal vein occlusion
B. Central retinal artery occlusion
C. Amaurosis fugax
D. Acute ischemic optic neuritis
Ans. B
Q 257. Which of following, is not a feature in diabetic retinopathy on fundus
examination:
A. Microaneurysms
B. Retinal hemorrhages
C. Arteriolar dilatation
D. Neovascularisation
Ans. C
Q 258. Vitamin B12 deficiency is likely to cause:
A. Bitemporal hemianopia
B. Binasal hemianopia
C. Heteronymous hemianopia
D. Centrocecal scotoma
Ans. D
Q 259. All are true regarding optic neuritis except:
A. Decreased visual acuity
B. Decreased pupillary reflex
C. Abnormal electroretinogram
D. Abnormal visual evoked response retinogram
Ans. C
Q 260. Chalky white optic disc on fundus examination is seen in all except:
A. Syphilis
B. Leber’s hereditary optic neuropathy
C. Post papilledema optic neuritis
D. Traumatic injury to the optic nerve
Ans. D
ENT
Q 261. A 3 months old child presents with intermittent stridor. Most likely
cause is:
A. Laryngotracheobronchitis
B. Laryngomalacia
C. Respiratory obstruction
D. Foreign body aspiration
Ans. B
Q 262. A patient presents with facial nerve palsy following head trauma with
FRACTURE of the mastoid. Best intervention here is:
A. Immediate decompression
B. Wait and watch
C. Facial sling
D. Steroids
Ans. A
Q 263. A case of Bell’s palsy on steroids shows no improvement after 2 weeks.
The next step in management should be:
A. Vasodilators and ACTH
B. Physiotherapy and electrical stimulation
C. Increase steroid dosage
D. Electrophysiological nerve testing
Ans. D
Q 264. Chandu a 15 years aged boy presents with unilateral nasal blockade, mass
in the cheek and epistaxis. Likely diagnosis is:
A. Nasopharyngeal CA
B. Angiofibroma
C. Inverted papilloma
D. None of the above
Ans. B
Q 265. A 40 years old diabetic presents with blackish nasal discharge and a mass
in the nose . Likely diagnosis is:
A. Mucormycosis
B. Actinomycosis
C. Rhinosporiodosis
D. Histoplasmosis
Ans. A
Q 266. Most radiosensitive tumour of the following is:
A. Supraglortic CA
B. CA glottis
C. CA nasopharynx
D. Subglottic CA
Ans. C
OBSTETRICS & Gynaecology
Q 267. Rokitansky Kuster Hauser syndrome is associated with:
A. Ovarian agenesis
B. Absent fallopian tube
C. Vaginal atresia
D. Bicornuate uterus
Ans. C
Q 268. A patient of 47 XXY karyotype presents with features of hypogonadism. The
likely diagnosis is:
A. Turner syndrome
B. Klinefelter syndrome
C. Edward syndrome
D. Down syndrome
Ans. B
Q 269. A girl presents with primary amenorrhea, grade V thelarche, grade II
pubarche, no axillary hair. The likely diagnosis is:
A. Testicular feminization
B. Mullerian agenesis
C. Turner syndrome
D. Gonadal dysgenesis
Ans. A
Q 270. A woman presents with amenorrhea of 6 weeks duration and lump in the
right iliac fossa. Investigation of choice is:
A. USG abdomen
B. Laparoscopy
C. CT scan
D. Shielded X-ray
Ans. A
Q 271. A woman presents with amenorrhea of 2 months duration lower abdominal
pain, facial pallor, fainting and shock. Diagnosis is:
A. Ruptured ovarian cyst
B. Ruptured ecotopic pregnancy
C. Threatened abortion
D. Septic abortion
Ans. B
Q 272. A young woman with six weeks amenorrhea presents with mass abdomen. USG
shows empty uterus. Diagnosis is:
A. Ovarian cyst
B. Ectopic pregnancy
C. Complete abortion
D. None of the above
Ans. B
Q 273. A 30 years old female, presents to the emergency with complaint of sudden
severe abdominal pain. An abdominal mass is palpable on examination. Most likely
diagnosis is:
A. Torsion of subserous fibroid
B. Torsion of ovarian cyst
C. Rupture of ectopic pregnancy
D. Rupture of ovarian cyst
Ans. B
Q 274. Basanti, a 28 years aged female with a history of 6 weeks of amenorrhea,
presents with pain in abdomen. USG shows fluid in pouch of Douglas. Aspiration
yields dark colour blood that fails to clot. Most probable diagnosis is:
A. Ruptured ovarian cyst
B. Ruptured ectopic pregnancy
C. Red degeneration of fibroid
D. Pelvic abscess
Ans. B
Q 275. A patient complains of post coital bleed. No growth is seen on per
speculum examination. Next step should be:
A. Colposcopic biopsy
B. Conization
C. Pap smear
D. Culdoscopy
Ans. A
Q 276. A 50 years old woman presents with post coital bleeding. A visible growth
on cervix is detected on per speculum examination. Next investigation is:
A. Punch biopsy
B. Colposcopic biopsy
C. Pap smear
D. Cone biopsy
Ans. A
Q 277. Rekha, a 45 years woman, has negative pap smear with +ve endocervical
curretage. Next step in management will be:
A. Colposcopy
B. Vaginal hysterectomy
C. Conization
D. Wartheim’s hysterectomy
Ans. D
Q 278. A case of carcinoma cervix is found in altered sensorium and is having
hiccups. The likely cause is:
A. Septicemia
B. Uremia
C. Raised ICT
D. Intestinal obstruction
Ans. B
Q 279. Bilateral ovarian cancer with capsule breached, ascites positive for
malignant cells. Stage is:
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
Ans. B
Q 280. The true regarding adenomyosis is:
A. More common in nullipara
B. Progestins are the agents of choice for medical management
C. Presents with menorrhagia, dysmenorrhoea, and an enlarged uterus
D. More common in young women
Ans. C
Q 281. In an infertile woman, endometrial biopsy reveals proliferative changes.
Which hormone should be preferred?
A. MDPA
B. Desogestrel
C. Norethisterone
D. None of the above
Ans. A
Q 282. A patient semen sample reveals: 15 million sperms/ml, 60 % normal
morphology, 60% motile sperms volume is 2 ml; no agglutination is seen.
Diagnosis is:
A. Azoospermia
B. Aspermia
C. Oligospermia
D. Normospermia
Ans. C
Q 283. Primary peritonitis is more common in females because:
A. Ostia of fallopian tubes communicate with abdominal cavity
B. Peritoneum overlies the uterus
C. Rupture of functional ovarian cysts
D. None of the above.
Ans. A
Q 284. False statement regarding HCG is:
A. It is secreted by cytotrophoblasts
B. It acts on same receptor as LH does
C. It has luteotrophic action
D. It is a glycoprotein
Ans. A
Q 285. All of the following are false except:
A. Oxytocin sensitivity increased during delivery
B. Prostaglandins should be given during 2nd trimester
C. Ergot derivatives relax lower segment of uterus
D. Oxytocin is best for induction of labour in IUD
Ans. A
Q 286. Snow storm appearance on USG is seen in:
A. Hydatidiform mole
B. Ectopic pregnancy
C. Anencephaly
D. None of the above
Ans. A
Q 287. All of the following are indications for termination of pregnancy in APH
patient except:
A. 37 weeks
B. IUD
C. Transverse lie
D. Continous bleeding
Ans. C
Q 288. A lady with 37 weeks pregnancy, presented with bleeding per vagina.
Invetigation shows severe degree of placenta previa. The treatment is:
A. Immediate CS
B. Blood transfusion
C. Conservative
D. Medical induction of labour
Ans. A
Q 289. A pregnant woman presents with red degeneration of fibroid. Management
is:
A. Myomectomy
B. Conservative
C. Hysterectomy
D. Termination of pregnancy
Ans. B
Q 290. An ovarian cyst is detected in a pregnant woman. Management is:
A. Immediate removal by laprotomy
B. Wait and watch
C. Removal by laparotomy in second trimester
D. Remove at time of caesarean section
Ans. C
Q 291. Most useful investigation in the first trimester to identify risk of
fetal malformation in a fetus of a diabetic mother is:
A. Glycosylated Hb
B. Ultrasound
C. MS-AFP
D. Amniocentesis
Ans. A
Q 292. A pregnant diabetic on oral sulphonyl urea therapy is shifted to insulin.
All of the followings are true regarding this, except:
A. Oral hypoglycaemics cause PIH
B. Insulin does not cross placenta
C. Oral hypoglycaemics cross placenta and deplete fetal insulin
D. During pregnancy insulin requirement increases and cannot be met with
sulphonylureas
Ans. A
Q 293. Condition associated with lack of a single pelvic ala is:
A. Robert’s pelvis
B. Naegele’s pelvis
C. Rachitic pelvis
D. Osteomalacia pelvis
Ans. B
Q 294. Consequence of maternal use of cocaine is:
A. Hydrops fetalis
B. Sacral agenesis
C. Cerebral infarction
D. Hypertrichosis
Ans. C
Q 295. DNA analysis of chorionic villus/amniocentesis is not likely to detect:
A. Tay Sachs’ disease
B. Hemophilia A
C. Sickle cell disease
D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
Ans. A
Q 296. A woman has had 2 previous anencephalic babies, risk of having a third
one is:
A. 0%
B. 10%
C. 25%
D. 50%
Ans. B
Radiology
Q 297. A neonate presents with respiratory distress, contralateral mediastinal
shift and multiple cystic airfilled lesions in the chest. Most likely