A 43-year-old white woman has recent knee swelling. Her knee becomes swollen and painful for several days at a time without noting any prior trauma. She receives minimal relief from nonsteroidal antiinflammatory medication. On physical examination, the patientís vital signs are within normal limits. Her right knee has a boggy effusion. Range of motion of the right knee is from 0 degrees to 95 degrees of flexion. The knee is stable to varus and valgus stress. There is no joint line tenderness on palpation. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Increase the patientís antiinflammatory medication dose and have her return to your clinic in 6 months
B. Order a magnetic resonance imaging study of the right knee because you suspect a meniscal tear in the right knee
C. Order a complete blood count and erythrocyte sedimentation rate because you suspect an indolent knee infection
D. Order a CT scan of the patientís right knee because you suspect an occult stress fracture
E. Take a more complete history and ask the patient if she has noted any other joints that become swollen or painful