A 27-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 1-week

A 27-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 1-week history of shortness of breath with exertion, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, and swelling of his feet. He has not had chest pain or palpitations. He has been healthy except for a "bad cold" 1 month ago that resolved spontaneously after 10 days. His temperature is 37 C (98.6 F), blood pressure is 90/60 mm Hg, pulse is 120/min, and respirations are 24/min. Examination shows jugular venous distention to 8 cm. Bilateral basilar crackles are heard. Cardiac examination shows a diffuse, laterally displaced point of maximal impulse. There is a normal S1 and S2 and an S3. Examination shows 2+ pretibial edema bilaterally. An ECG shows no abnormalities. Echocardiography is most likely to show which of the following?

A) Asymmetric septal hypertrophy
B) Bicuspid aortic valve with stenosis
C) Diffuse hypokinesia and dilation of the ventricles
D) Dyskinesia of the left ventricular apex
E) Mitral valve prolapse

This is a case of dilated (congested cardiomyopathy).

there is edema which can't be right away after viral infection. MVP is the most common in middle age person

Viral Cardiomyopathy -- CCC

A, B and E should all present with a Mumur or abn Heart Sounds